Is the charateristic function $chi _{Omega }$ in the Sobolev space $W^{1,2}_{0}(Omega)$?












1














Given $Omega$ is a bounded, $C^1$ domain in $mathbb{R}^n$. $chi _{Omega }(x)$ is the characteristic function of $Omega$.



I have done the followings:



We can get $chi _{Omega }(x) in L^2(Omega)$ for all $n in mathbb{N}$ quite easily. The next thing is to show the existence of the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$.



For $n=1$, $Omega$ is an open interval. Let $phi in C_{c}^{infty }(Omega)$ be an arbitrary test function. We have



$int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=int_{a}^{b}phi'dx =phi(b)-phi(a)=0$



So $int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=-int_{a}^{b}0.phi dx$, and the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$ is $0$.



For $ngeq 2$, I get stuck and don't know if $chi_{Omega}$ has the weak derivative or not.



Thank you very much for your help.










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  • $chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:20






  • 1




    @Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:28










  • It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:29












  • OK thank you, I got it.
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:31










  • @Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
    – supinf
    Jan 4 at 12:12
















1














Given $Omega$ is a bounded, $C^1$ domain in $mathbb{R}^n$. $chi _{Omega }(x)$ is the characteristic function of $Omega$.



I have done the followings:



We can get $chi _{Omega }(x) in L^2(Omega)$ for all $n in mathbb{N}$ quite easily. The next thing is to show the existence of the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$.



For $n=1$, $Omega$ is an open interval. Let $phi in C_{c}^{infty }(Omega)$ be an arbitrary test function. We have



$int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=int_{a}^{b}phi'dx =phi(b)-phi(a)=0$



So $int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=-int_{a}^{b}0.phi dx$, and the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$ is $0$.



For $ngeq 2$, I get stuck and don't know if $chi_{Omega}$ has the weak derivative or not.



Thank you very much for your help.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • $chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:20






  • 1




    @Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:28










  • It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:29












  • OK thank you, I got it.
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:31










  • @Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
    – supinf
    Jan 4 at 12:12














1












1








1


1





Given $Omega$ is a bounded, $C^1$ domain in $mathbb{R}^n$. $chi _{Omega }(x)$ is the characteristic function of $Omega$.



I have done the followings:



We can get $chi _{Omega }(x) in L^2(Omega)$ for all $n in mathbb{N}$ quite easily. The next thing is to show the existence of the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$.



For $n=1$, $Omega$ is an open interval. Let $phi in C_{c}^{infty }(Omega)$ be an arbitrary test function. We have



$int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=int_{a}^{b}phi'dx =phi(b)-phi(a)=0$



So $int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=-int_{a}^{b}0.phi dx$, and the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$ is $0$.



For $ngeq 2$, I get stuck and don't know if $chi_{Omega}$ has the weak derivative or not.



Thank you very much for your help.










share|cite|improve this question













Given $Omega$ is a bounded, $C^1$ domain in $mathbb{R}^n$. $chi _{Omega }(x)$ is the characteristic function of $Omega$.



I have done the followings:



We can get $chi _{Omega }(x) in L^2(Omega)$ for all $n in mathbb{N}$ quite easily. The next thing is to show the existence of the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$.



For $n=1$, $Omega$ is an open interval. Let $phi in C_{c}^{infty }(Omega)$ be an arbitrary test function. We have



$int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=int_{a}^{b}phi'dx =phi(b)-phi(a)=0$



So $int_{a}^{b}chi _{(a,b) }phi 'dx=-int_{a}^{b}0.phi dx$, and the weak derivative of $chi_{Omega}$ is $0$.



For $ngeq 2$, I get stuck and don't know if $chi_{Omega}$ has the weak derivative or not.



Thank you very much for your help.







functional-analysis lebesgue-integral sobolev-spaces






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asked May 9 '16 at 14:10









user1210321user1210321

485




485












  • $chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:20






  • 1




    @Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:28










  • It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:29












  • OK thank you, I got it.
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:31










  • @Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
    – supinf
    Jan 4 at 12:12


















  • $chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:20






  • 1




    @Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:28










  • It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
    – Ian
    May 9 '16 at 14:29












  • OK thank you, I got it.
    – user1210321
    May 9 '16 at 14:31










  • @Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
    – supinf
    Jan 4 at 12:12
















$chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
– Ian
May 9 '16 at 14:20




$chi_Omega$ is the same as just $1$ as far as $Omega$ is concerned, so its weak derivative is its strong derivative which is $0$. But it won't be $W^{1,p}_0$ because it isn't compactly supported.
– Ian
May 9 '16 at 14:20




1




1




@Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
– user1210321
May 9 '16 at 14:28




@Ian: I didn't get why it's not compactly supported. I think $suppchi_{Omega}=overline{left { xinmathbb{R}^n: f(x)neq 0 right }}=overline{Omega}$, which is a compact set. Am I wrong somewhere?
– user1210321
May 9 '16 at 14:28












It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
– Ian
May 9 '16 at 14:29






It means that it is compactly supported as a subset of $Omega$. $chi_Omega$ does not have that property, because its support inside $Omega$ is $Omega$ itself which is not compact.
– Ian
May 9 '16 at 14:29














OK thank you, I got it.
– user1210321
May 9 '16 at 14:31




OK thank you, I got it.
– user1210321
May 9 '16 at 14:31












@Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
– supinf
Jan 4 at 12:12




@Ian it is misleading to say that it is not in $W_0^{1,2}$ because it is not compactly supported. Consider the function $x(x-1)$ which is in $W_0^{1,2}((0,1))$ but is not compactly supported in $(0,1)$.
– supinf
Jan 4 at 12:12










1 Answer
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No, the function $chi_Omega$ is not in the Sobolev space $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$
if the domain $Omega$ is bounded.



Recall that $W_0^{1,2}$ is defined as the closure of the subspace $C_c^infty(Omega)subset H^1(Omega)$.
Let us assume that $chi_Omegain W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
Then there exists a sequence $phi_nin C_c^infty(Omega)$
such that $phi_nto chi_Omega$ in $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
It follows that
$$
|phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |chi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=|Omega|>0
$$

and
$$
|nabla phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |nablachi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=0.
$$

(Note that the function $chi_Omega$ has weak derivatives $0$
because it is equal to the classical derivative and $chi_Omega$ is constant.)



However, by the Poincaré inequality
we have
$$
|phi_n|_L^p(Omega) leq C|nablaphi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}
$$

for some constant $C>0$ (here it is useful that the domain $Omega$ is bounded).
This yields a contradiction to the convergencies that are mentioned above.






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    No, the function $chi_Omega$ is not in the Sobolev space $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$
    if the domain $Omega$ is bounded.



    Recall that $W_0^{1,2}$ is defined as the closure of the subspace $C_c^infty(Omega)subset H^1(Omega)$.
    Let us assume that $chi_Omegain W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
    Then there exists a sequence $phi_nin C_c^infty(Omega)$
    such that $phi_nto chi_Omega$ in $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
    It follows that
    $$
    |phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |chi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=|Omega|>0
    $$

    and
    $$
    |nabla phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |nablachi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=0.
    $$

    (Note that the function $chi_Omega$ has weak derivatives $0$
    because it is equal to the classical derivative and $chi_Omega$ is constant.)



    However, by the Poincaré inequality
    we have
    $$
    |phi_n|_L^p(Omega) leq C|nablaphi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}
    $$

    for some constant $C>0$ (here it is useful that the domain $Omega$ is bounded).
    This yields a contradiction to the convergencies that are mentioned above.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      0














      No, the function $chi_Omega$ is not in the Sobolev space $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$
      if the domain $Omega$ is bounded.



      Recall that $W_0^{1,2}$ is defined as the closure of the subspace $C_c^infty(Omega)subset H^1(Omega)$.
      Let us assume that $chi_Omegain W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
      Then there exists a sequence $phi_nin C_c^infty(Omega)$
      such that $phi_nto chi_Omega$ in $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
      It follows that
      $$
      |phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |chi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=|Omega|>0
      $$

      and
      $$
      |nabla phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |nablachi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=0.
      $$

      (Note that the function $chi_Omega$ has weak derivatives $0$
      because it is equal to the classical derivative and $chi_Omega$ is constant.)



      However, by the Poincaré inequality
      we have
      $$
      |phi_n|_L^p(Omega) leq C|nablaphi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}
      $$

      for some constant $C>0$ (here it is useful that the domain $Omega$ is bounded).
      This yields a contradiction to the convergencies that are mentioned above.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        0












        0








        0






        No, the function $chi_Omega$ is not in the Sobolev space $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$
        if the domain $Omega$ is bounded.



        Recall that $W_0^{1,2}$ is defined as the closure of the subspace $C_c^infty(Omega)subset H^1(Omega)$.
        Let us assume that $chi_Omegain W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
        Then there exists a sequence $phi_nin C_c^infty(Omega)$
        such that $phi_nto chi_Omega$ in $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
        It follows that
        $$
        |phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |chi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=|Omega|>0
        $$

        and
        $$
        |nabla phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |nablachi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=0.
        $$

        (Note that the function $chi_Omega$ has weak derivatives $0$
        because it is equal to the classical derivative and $chi_Omega$ is constant.)



        However, by the Poincaré inequality
        we have
        $$
        |phi_n|_L^p(Omega) leq C|nablaphi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}
        $$

        for some constant $C>0$ (here it is useful that the domain $Omega$ is bounded).
        This yields a contradiction to the convergencies that are mentioned above.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        No, the function $chi_Omega$ is not in the Sobolev space $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$
        if the domain $Omega$ is bounded.



        Recall that $W_0^{1,2}$ is defined as the closure of the subspace $C_c^infty(Omega)subset H^1(Omega)$.
        Let us assume that $chi_Omegain W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
        Then there exists a sequence $phi_nin C_c^infty(Omega)$
        such that $phi_nto chi_Omega$ in $W_0^{1,2}(Omega)$.
        It follows that
        $$
        |phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |chi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=|Omega|>0
        $$

        and
        $$
        |nabla phi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}to |nablachi_Omega|_{L^p(Omega)}=0.
        $$

        (Note that the function $chi_Omega$ has weak derivatives $0$
        because it is equal to the classical derivative and $chi_Omega$ is constant.)



        However, by the Poincaré inequality
        we have
        $$
        |phi_n|_L^p(Omega) leq C|nablaphi_n|_{L^p(Omega)}
        $$

        for some constant $C>0$ (here it is useful that the domain $Omega$ is bounded).
        This yields a contradiction to the convergencies that are mentioned above.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 4 at 13:36









        supinfsupinf

        6,0941028




        6,0941028






























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