Proof that a sequence is Cauchy.
Show that $left( x_{n}right) $ is a Cauchy sequence, where
$$
x_{n}=frac{sin1}{2}+frac{sin2}{2^{2}}+ldots+frac{sin n}{2^{n}}.
$$
We try to evaluate $leftvert x_{n+p}-x_{n}rightvert $ and to show that
this one is arbitrary small. So
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{sinleft(
n+1right) }{2^{n+1}}+frac{sinleft( n+2right) }{2^{n+2}}+ldots
+frac{sinleft( n+pright) }{2^{n+p}}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}.
end{align*}
Now, $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right) $ converge all to zero. Hence
$leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert rightarrow0$.
Does it work this argument according to the definition of Cauchy sequence
$$
forallvarepsilon>0,
quad
exists n_{varepsilon}in
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall nin
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall pin
mathbb{N}
:n,pgeq n_{varepsilon}Rightarrowleftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert
<varepsilon?
$$
My question was born from the fact that for the sequence
$$
a_{n}=1+frac{1}{2}+ldots+frac{1}{n},
$$
we have that
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}
end{align*}
and also all sequences $left( frac{1}{n+j}right) _{n}$ converge to zero,
but this time $left( a_{n}right) $ is not a Cauchy sequence.
analysis
add a comment |
Show that $left( x_{n}right) $ is a Cauchy sequence, where
$$
x_{n}=frac{sin1}{2}+frac{sin2}{2^{2}}+ldots+frac{sin n}{2^{n}}.
$$
We try to evaluate $leftvert x_{n+p}-x_{n}rightvert $ and to show that
this one is arbitrary small. So
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{sinleft(
n+1right) }{2^{n+1}}+frac{sinleft( n+2right) }{2^{n+2}}+ldots
+frac{sinleft( n+pright) }{2^{n+p}}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}.
end{align*}
Now, $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right) $ converge all to zero. Hence
$leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert rightarrow0$.
Does it work this argument according to the definition of Cauchy sequence
$$
forallvarepsilon>0,
quad
exists n_{varepsilon}in
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall nin
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall pin
mathbb{N}
:n,pgeq n_{varepsilon}Rightarrowleftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert
<varepsilon?
$$
My question was born from the fact that for the sequence
$$
a_{n}=1+frac{1}{2}+ldots+frac{1}{n},
$$
we have that
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}
end{align*}
and also all sequences $left( frac{1}{n+j}right) _{n}$ converge to zero,
but this time $left( a_{n}right) $ is not a Cauchy sequence.
analysis
1
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16
add a comment |
Show that $left( x_{n}right) $ is a Cauchy sequence, where
$$
x_{n}=frac{sin1}{2}+frac{sin2}{2^{2}}+ldots+frac{sin n}{2^{n}}.
$$
We try to evaluate $leftvert x_{n+p}-x_{n}rightvert $ and to show that
this one is arbitrary small. So
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{sinleft(
n+1right) }{2^{n+1}}+frac{sinleft( n+2right) }{2^{n+2}}+ldots
+frac{sinleft( n+pright) }{2^{n+p}}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}.
end{align*}
Now, $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right) $ converge all to zero. Hence
$leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert rightarrow0$.
Does it work this argument according to the definition of Cauchy sequence
$$
forallvarepsilon>0,
quad
exists n_{varepsilon}in
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall nin
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall pin
mathbb{N}
:n,pgeq n_{varepsilon}Rightarrowleftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert
<varepsilon?
$$
My question was born from the fact that for the sequence
$$
a_{n}=1+frac{1}{2}+ldots+frac{1}{n},
$$
we have that
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}
end{align*}
and also all sequences $left( frac{1}{n+j}right) _{n}$ converge to zero,
but this time $left( a_{n}right) $ is not a Cauchy sequence.
analysis
Show that $left( x_{n}right) $ is a Cauchy sequence, where
$$
x_{n}=frac{sin1}{2}+frac{sin2}{2^{2}}+ldots+frac{sin n}{2^{n}}.
$$
We try to evaluate $leftvert x_{n+p}-x_{n}rightvert $ and to show that
this one is arbitrary small. So
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{sinleft(
n+1right) }{2^{n+1}}+frac{sinleft( n+2right) }{2^{n+2}}+ldots
+frac{sinleft( n+pright) }{2^{n+p}}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}.
end{align*}
Now, $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right) $ converge all to zero. Hence
$leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert rightarrow0$.
Does it work this argument according to the definition of Cauchy sequence
$$
forallvarepsilon>0,
quad
exists n_{varepsilon}in
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall nin
mathbb{N}
,
quad
forall pin
mathbb{N}
:n,pgeq n_{varepsilon}Rightarrowleftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert
<varepsilon?
$$
My question was born from the fact that for the sequence
$$
a_{n}=1+frac{1}{2}+ldots+frac{1}{n},
$$
we have that
begin{align*}
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert & =leftvert frac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}rightvert \
& leqfrac{1}{n+1}+frac{1}{n+2}+ldots+frac{1}{n+p}
end{align*}
and also all sequences $left( frac{1}{n+j}right) _{n}$ converge to zero,
but this time $left( a_{n}right) $ is not a Cauchy sequence.
analysis
analysis
edited Jan 4 at 14:08
stefano
asked Jan 4 at 13:59
stefanostefano
824
824
1
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16
add a comment |
1
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
1
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
1
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
It is not sufficient that all $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right)$ converge to zero. A correct argument would be that
$$
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert le
frac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}
= frac{1}{2^{n}} left( frac 12 + frac 14 + ldots + frac{1}{2^{p}}right) < frac{1}{2^{n}}
$$
becomes arbitrary small for large $n$ and arbitrary $p$.
That won't work for the harmonic series.
add a comment |
A (quite silly) argument...
$x_n$ is the partial sum of an absolutely converging real sequence. Hence $(x_n)$ converges and is Cauchy as $mathbb R$ is complete.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
It is not sufficient that all $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right)$ converge to zero. A correct argument would be that
$$
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert le
frac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}
= frac{1}{2^{n}} left( frac 12 + frac 14 + ldots + frac{1}{2^{p}}right) < frac{1}{2^{n}}
$$
becomes arbitrary small for large $n$ and arbitrary $p$.
That won't work for the harmonic series.
add a comment |
It is not sufficient that all $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right)$ converge to zero. A correct argument would be that
$$
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert le
frac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}
= frac{1}{2^{n}} left( frac 12 + frac 14 + ldots + frac{1}{2^{p}}right) < frac{1}{2^{n}}
$$
becomes arbitrary small for large $n$ and arbitrary $p$.
That won't work for the harmonic series.
add a comment |
It is not sufficient that all $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right)$ converge to zero. A correct argument would be that
$$
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert le
frac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}
= frac{1}{2^{n}} left( frac 12 + frac 14 + ldots + frac{1}{2^{p}}right) < frac{1}{2^{n}}
$$
becomes arbitrary small for large $n$ and arbitrary $p$.
That won't work for the harmonic series.
It is not sufficient that all $left( frac{1}{2^{n+j}}right)$ converge to zero. A correct argument would be that
$$
leftvert a_{n+p}-a_{n}rightvert le
frac{1}{2^{n+1}}+frac{1}{2^{n+2}}+ldots+frac{1}{2^{n+p}}
= frac{1}{2^{n}} left( frac 12 + frac 14 + ldots + frac{1}{2^{p}}right) < frac{1}{2^{n}}
$$
becomes arbitrary small for large $n$ and arbitrary $p$.
That won't work for the harmonic series.
answered Jan 4 at 14:19
Martin RMartin R
27.3k33254
27.3k33254
add a comment |
add a comment |
A (quite silly) argument...
$x_n$ is the partial sum of an absolutely converging real sequence. Hence $(x_n)$ converges and is Cauchy as $mathbb R$ is complete.
add a comment |
A (quite silly) argument...
$x_n$ is the partial sum of an absolutely converging real sequence. Hence $(x_n)$ converges and is Cauchy as $mathbb R$ is complete.
add a comment |
A (quite silly) argument...
$x_n$ is the partial sum of an absolutely converging real sequence. Hence $(x_n)$ converges and is Cauchy as $mathbb R$ is complete.
A (quite silly) argument...
$x_n$ is the partial sum of an absolutely converging real sequence. Hence $(x_n)$ converges and is Cauchy as $mathbb R$ is complete.
answered Jan 4 at 14:14
mathcounterexamples.netmathcounterexamples.net
25.3k21953
25.3k21953
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
the sequence converges, but not because of $frac{1}{2^{n}} to 0$ as $n to infty$. Use sum of G.P.
– Offlaw
Jan 4 at 14:16
1
an infinite sum of terms converging to zero may not converge to zero
– Smilia
Jan 4 at 14:16