Construct a non trivial homomorphism from $mathbb{Z}_2timesmathbb{Z}_4$ to $mathbb{Z}_8$












0














I don't know how to solve this problem since the group $mathbb{Z}_2timesmathbb{Z}_4$ is not cyclic. I just know that $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4= { (0,0), (0,1),(1,0),(1,1),(0,2),(1,2),(0,3),(1,3) }$ and that the orders of these elements are:



$(0,0)$: $1$
$(0,1)$: $4$
$(1,0)$: $2$
$(1,1)$: $4$
$(0,2)$: $2$
$(1,2)$: $2$
$(0,3)$: $4$
$(1,3)$: $4$



Can anyone help me?










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    I don't know how to solve this problem since the group $mathbb{Z}_2timesmathbb{Z}_4$ is not cyclic. I just know that $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4= { (0,0), (0,1),(1,0),(1,1),(0,2),(1,2),(0,3),(1,3) }$ and that the orders of these elements are:



    $(0,0)$: $1$
    $(0,1)$: $4$
    $(1,0)$: $2$
    $(1,1)$: $4$
    $(0,2)$: $2$
    $(1,2)$: $2$
    $(0,3)$: $4$
    $(1,3)$: $4$



    Can anyone help me?










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    Failousa is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.























      0












      0








      0







      I don't know how to solve this problem since the group $mathbb{Z}_2timesmathbb{Z}_4$ is not cyclic. I just know that $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4= { (0,0), (0,1),(1,0),(1,1),(0,2),(1,2),(0,3),(1,3) }$ and that the orders of these elements are:



      $(0,0)$: $1$
      $(0,1)$: $4$
      $(1,0)$: $2$
      $(1,1)$: $4$
      $(0,2)$: $2$
      $(1,2)$: $2$
      $(0,3)$: $4$
      $(1,3)$: $4$



      Can anyone help me?










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      Failousa is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      I don't know how to solve this problem since the group $mathbb{Z}_2timesmathbb{Z}_4$ is not cyclic. I just know that $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4= { (0,0), (0,1),(1,0),(1,1),(0,2),(1,2),(0,3),(1,3) }$ and that the orders of these elements are:



      $(0,0)$: $1$
      $(0,1)$: $4$
      $(1,0)$: $2$
      $(1,1)$: $4$
      $(0,2)$: $2$
      $(1,2)$: $2$
      $(0,3)$: $4$
      $(1,3)$: $4$



      Can anyone help me?







      abstract-algebra group-theory cyclic-groups group-homomorphism direct-product






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      share|cite|improve this question









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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 4 at 18:16









      Shaun

      8,820113681




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      asked Jan 4 at 17:23









      FailousaFailousa

      31




      31




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      Failousa is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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          2 Answers
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          active

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          3














          A homomorphism out of $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4$ is determined by where it sends $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. To make it non-trivial, you just need to send one of those to somewhere that isn't $(0,0)$. Note that you must send $(1,0)$ to an element of order $1$ or $2$, and $(0,1)$ to an element of order $1$, $2$, or $4$, or the resulting function will not be a homomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:43












          • $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
            – user3482749
            Jan 4 at 19:46










          • Ok.Thank you very much!
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:53



















          2














          Hint: If $G_1$, $G_2$ and $G_3$ are additive abelian groups, a homomorphism $G_1times G_2to G_3$ is of the form
          $$
          (x,y)mapsto alpha(x)+beta(y)
          $$

          where $alphacolon G_1to G_3$ and $betacolon G_2to G_3$ are (arbitrary) homomorphisms. This is not trivial so long as either $alpha$ or $beta$ is not trivial.



          Can you find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z}_2tomathbb{Z}_8$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:58










          • @Failousa You can prove it directly.
            – egreg
            Jan 4 at 20:25











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
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          2 Answers
          2






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          active

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          3














          A homomorphism out of $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4$ is determined by where it sends $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. To make it non-trivial, you just need to send one of those to somewhere that isn't $(0,0)$. Note that you must send $(1,0)$ to an element of order $1$ or $2$, and $(0,1)$ to an element of order $1$, $2$, or $4$, or the resulting function will not be a homomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:43












          • $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
            – user3482749
            Jan 4 at 19:46










          • Ok.Thank you very much!
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:53
















          3














          A homomorphism out of $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4$ is determined by where it sends $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. To make it non-trivial, you just need to send one of those to somewhere that isn't $(0,0)$. Note that you must send $(1,0)$ to an element of order $1$ or $2$, and $(0,1)$ to an element of order $1$, $2$, or $4$, or the resulting function will not be a homomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:43












          • $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
            – user3482749
            Jan 4 at 19:46










          • Ok.Thank you very much!
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:53














          3












          3








          3






          A homomorphism out of $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4$ is determined by where it sends $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. To make it non-trivial, you just need to send one of those to somewhere that isn't $(0,0)$. Note that you must send $(1,0)$ to an element of order $1$ or $2$, and $(0,1)$ to an element of order $1$, $2$, or $4$, or the resulting function will not be a homomorphism.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          A homomorphism out of $mathbb{Z}_2 times mathbb{Z}_4$ is determined by where it sends $(1,0)$ and $(0,1)$. To make it non-trivial, you just need to send one of those to somewhere that isn't $(0,0)$. Note that you must send $(1,0)$ to an element of order $1$ or $2$, and $(0,1)$ to an element of order $1$, $2$, or $4$, or the resulting function will not be a homomorphism.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 4 at 17:26









          user3482749user3482749

          2,979414




          2,979414












          • Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:43












          • $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
            – user3482749
            Jan 4 at 19:46










          • Ok.Thank you very much!
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:53


















          • Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:43












          • $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
            – user3482749
            Jan 4 at 19:46










          • Ok.Thank you very much!
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:53
















          Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:43






          Thank you for your help.So,I just have to send (1,0) to 0 or 4 and (0,1) to 0 or 4 or 2 or 6 but without both being 0 at the same time.Right? If I choose for example f(1,0)=0 and f(0,1)=2 I want to show that f(0,0)=0$in mathbb{Z_8}$ in order f to be an homomorphism.So, f(0,0)=f(2,4)=2f(1,2).We know that (1,2)=(1,0)+2(0,1).How can I compute f(1,2)?Is it correct to say that f(1,2)=0+2$cdot$2=4 ,so f(0,0)=2$cdot$4=8=0 in $mathbb{Z_8}$? I don't know if my thoughts are right.
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:43














          $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
          – user3482749
          Jan 4 at 19:46




          $f(1,2) = f(1,0) + 2f(0,1)$, since $f$ is a homomorphism, so $f(1,2) = 2(2) = 4$. You don't need to prove that $f(0,0) = 0$: you defined it to be that.
          – user3482749
          Jan 4 at 19:46












          Ok.Thank you very much!
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:53




          Ok.Thank you very much!
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:53











          2














          Hint: If $G_1$, $G_2$ and $G_3$ are additive abelian groups, a homomorphism $G_1times G_2to G_3$ is of the form
          $$
          (x,y)mapsto alpha(x)+beta(y)
          $$

          where $alphacolon G_1to G_3$ and $betacolon G_2to G_3$ are (arbitrary) homomorphisms. This is not trivial so long as either $alpha$ or $beta$ is not trivial.



          Can you find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z}_2tomathbb{Z}_8$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:58










          • @Failousa You can prove it directly.
            – egreg
            Jan 4 at 20:25
















          2














          Hint: If $G_1$, $G_2$ and $G_3$ are additive abelian groups, a homomorphism $G_1times G_2to G_3$ is of the form
          $$
          (x,y)mapsto alpha(x)+beta(y)
          $$

          where $alphacolon G_1to G_3$ and $betacolon G_2to G_3$ are (arbitrary) homomorphisms. This is not trivial so long as either $alpha$ or $beta$ is not trivial.



          Can you find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z}_2tomathbb{Z}_8$?






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:58










          • @Failousa You can prove it directly.
            – egreg
            Jan 4 at 20:25














          2












          2








          2






          Hint: If $G_1$, $G_2$ and $G_3$ are additive abelian groups, a homomorphism $G_1times G_2to G_3$ is of the form
          $$
          (x,y)mapsto alpha(x)+beta(y)
          $$

          where $alphacolon G_1to G_3$ and $betacolon G_2to G_3$ are (arbitrary) homomorphisms. This is not trivial so long as either $alpha$ or $beta$ is not trivial.



          Can you find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z}_2tomathbb{Z}_8$?






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint: If $G_1$, $G_2$ and $G_3$ are additive abelian groups, a homomorphism $G_1times G_2to G_3$ is of the form
          $$
          (x,y)mapsto alpha(x)+beta(y)
          $$

          where $alphacolon G_1to G_3$ and $betacolon G_2to G_3$ are (arbitrary) homomorphisms. This is not trivial so long as either $alpha$ or $beta$ is not trivial.



          Can you find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z}_2tomathbb{Z}_8$?







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 4 at 17:38









          egregegreg

          179k1485202




          179k1485202












          • I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:58










          • @Failousa You can prove it directly.
            – egreg
            Jan 4 at 20:25


















          • I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
            – Failousa
            Jan 4 at 19:58










          • @Failousa You can prove it directly.
            – egreg
            Jan 4 at 20:25
















          I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:58




          I didn't know that.Thanks for your help!Yes,I can find a nontrivial homomorphism $mathbb{Z_2}tomathbb{Z_8}$ but can I have a proof of what you wrote? Or a link where I can find it?
          – Failousa
          Jan 4 at 19:58












          @Failousa You can prove it directly.
          – egreg
          Jan 4 at 20:25




          @Failousa You can prove it directly.
          – egreg
          Jan 4 at 20:25










          Failousa is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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