Is it reasonable to use the movie version of a book to interpret the book when the same author wrote both?
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Related: How much weight should we give authors' declarations of their intent after the fact? Just to give a concrete example of what I'm asking about, I'm thinking in particular about The Hunger Games books and movies. Since the book was written entirely from the perspective of Katniss, the movie has a significant amount of detail that the books didn't. For example, in the movies President Snowe explains why they have the Hunger Games in the first place instead of, for example, just rounding up kids at random and executing them on the spot. Suzanne Collins is, at a minimum, listed as one of the first movie's screenwriters (although she's not listed as a screenwriter for all of them, such as Mockingjay part 1). She was presumably still involved in the creation of all of the movies,...