Use Fourier coefficients of $f(t)=t$ to show $sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^2}= frac{pi^2}{6}$ [duplicate]












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  • Fourier serie property for $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$

    1 answer




Using Fourier coefficients of $f in L_2(mathbb{T})$ given by $f(t)=t$ for almost all $t in ,,]-pi, pi[$ show that
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^2}= frac{pi^2}{6}$$



I think it’s an easy exercise but I didn’t understand the Fourier analysis part I had in the functional analysis course I attented and I don’t know how to solve this problem










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marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde, mrtaurho, RRL, jgon Jan 4 at 21:13


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:51










  • I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:58
















0















This question already has an answer here:




  • Fourier serie property for $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$

    1 answer




Using Fourier coefficients of $f in L_2(mathbb{T})$ given by $f(t)=t$ for almost all $t in ,,]-pi, pi[$ show that
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^2}= frac{pi^2}{6}$$



I think it’s an easy exercise but I didn’t understand the Fourier analysis part I had in the functional analysis course I attented and I don’t know how to solve this problem










share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde, mrtaurho, RRL, jgon Jan 4 at 21:13


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:51










  • I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:58














0












0








0








This question already has an answer here:




  • Fourier serie property for $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$

    1 answer




Using Fourier coefficients of $f in L_2(mathbb{T})$ given by $f(t)=t$ for almost all $t in ,,]-pi, pi[$ show that
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^2}= frac{pi^2}{6}$$



I think it’s an easy exercise but I didn’t understand the Fourier analysis part I had in the functional analysis course I attented and I don’t know how to solve this problem










share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:




  • Fourier serie property for $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$

    1 answer




Using Fourier coefficients of $f in L_2(mathbb{T})$ given by $f(t)=t$ for almost all $t in ,,]-pi, pi[$ show that
$$sum_{n=1}^{infty} frac{1}{n^2}= frac{pi^2}{6}$$



I think it’s an easy exercise but I didn’t understand the Fourier analysis part I had in the functional analysis course I attented and I don’t know how to solve this problem





This question already has an answer here:




  • Fourier serie property for $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$

    1 answer








sequences-and-series functional-analysis fourier-analysis fourier-series lp-spaces






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asked Jan 4 at 18:48









Maggie94Maggie94

1026




1026




marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde, mrtaurho, RRL, jgon Jan 4 at 21:13


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by José Carlos Santos, Dietrich Burde, mrtaurho, RRL, jgon Jan 4 at 21:13


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:51










  • I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:58


















  • Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:51










  • I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
    – Wojowu
    Jan 4 at 18:58
















Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
– Wojowu
Jan 4 at 18:51




Do you know how to compute the Fourier coefficients?
– Wojowu
Jan 4 at 18:51












I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
– Wojowu
Jan 4 at 18:58




I retract my close vote because I have realized the linked problem finds the value of the sum differently
– Wojowu
Jan 4 at 18:58










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1














If $f$ is a continuous function on $[-pi,pi]$ then
$$int_{-pi}^pi |f(x)|^2,dx=2pisum_{n=-infty}^infty |c_n|^2$$
where
$$c_n=frac1{2pi}int_{-pi}^pi e^{-inx}f(x),dx$$
is the $n$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$.



In your case, you need to compute
$$int_{-pi}^pi x^2,dx$$
and
$$int_{-pi}^pi xe^{-inx},dx$$
for each integer $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday












  • The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
    – Maggie94
    yesterday










  • You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday


















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














If $f$ is a continuous function on $[-pi,pi]$ then
$$int_{-pi}^pi |f(x)|^2,dx=2pisum_{n=-infty}^infty |c_n|^2$$
where
$$c_n=frac1{2pi}int_{-pi}^pi e^{-inx}f(x),dx$$
is the $n$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$.



In your case, you need to compute
$$int_{-pi}^pi x^2,dx$$
and
$$int_{-pi}^pi xe^{-inx},dx$$
for each integer $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday












  • The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
    – Maggie94
    yesterday










  • You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday
















1














If $f$ is a continuous function on $[-pi,pi]$ then
$$int_{-pi}^pi |f(x)|^2,dx=2pisum_{n=-infty}^infty |c_n|^2$$
where
$$c_n=frac1{2pi}int_{-pi}^pi e^{-inx}f(x),dx$$
is the $n$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$.



In your case, you need to compute
$$int_{-pi}^pi x^2,dx$$
and
$$int_{-pi}^pi xe^{-inx},dx$$
for each integer $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday












  • The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
    – Maggie94
    yesterday










  • You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday














1












1








1






If $f$ is a continuous function on $[-pi,pi]$ then
$$int_{-pi}^pi |f(x)|^2,dx=2pisum_{n=-infty}^infty |c_n|^2$$
where
$$c_n=frac1{2pi}int_{-pi}^pi e^{-inx}f(x),dx$$
is the $n$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$.



In your case, you need to compute
$$int_{-pi}^pi x^2,dx$$
and
$$int_{-pi}^pi xe^{-inx},dx$$
for each integer $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer












If $f$ is a continuous function on $[-pi,pi]$ then
$$int_{-pi}^pi |f(x)|^2,dx=2pisum_{n=-infty}^infty |c_n|^2$$
where
$$c_n=frac1{2pi}int_{-pi}^pi e^{-inx}f(x),dx$$
is the $n$-th Fourier coefficient of $f$.



In your case, you need to compute
$$int_{-pi}^pi x^2,dx$$
and
$$int_{-pi}^pi xe^{-inx},dx$$
for each integer $n$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 4 at 18:55









Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

102k959132




102k959132












  • Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday












  • The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
    – Maggie94
    yesterday










  • You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday


















  • Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday












  • The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
    – Maggie94
    yesterday










  • You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    yesterday










  • Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
    – Maggie94
    yesterday
















Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
– Maggie94
yesterday






Yes I did it and in the first integral I get $frac{2 pi^3}{3}$, while in the second, integrating by parts, I get $-pi e^{-inpi} - pi e^{inpi} + e^ {inpi} - e^{-inpi}$, right? And from here?
– Maggie94
yesterday














The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
yesterday




The are all definite integrals. There should be no $t$s in them.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
yesterday












Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
– Maggie94
yesterday




Yes the t were all $ pi$, sorry
– Maggie94
yesterday












You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
yesterday




You should know what $e^{ipi}$ is.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
yesterday












Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
– Maggie94
yesterday




Yes, it is 1. But $e^{in pi}$ could be 1 or -1 depending on $n$ (if it is odd it is -1), right?
– Maggie94
yesterday



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