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1 1 I am reading the following paper of Miller: http://researchers.ms.unimelb.edu.au/ He says that if $G= F_{1} times F_{2}$ is a direct product of two free groups and $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ , then it can be assumed that the projection maps $$text{p}_{i} colon H rightarrow F_{i}$$ are surjective. I do not understand why is this trivial. If ${f_{1},cdots,f_{n}}$ is a basis of the free group $F_{1}$ , why should we have elements of the form $(f_{i},h_{i})$ in $H$ for all $iin {1,cdots,n}$ ? He simply says that this follows because subgroups of free groups are free. group-theory free-groups direct-product share | cite | improve this question asked 2 days ago...

28 2 I'm graduating university (Software Engineering) in a month and I already got a job lined up in a company that I worked in as an intern since last year. I really liked the work I did, the general atmosphere, the freedom the employer gives and I get along with my colleagues really well. But now that I'll start working 'for real' in a month, I feel like I could have done better with jobhunting, because of the stuff I found out I will be doing. It's 90% SAP stuff (a HUMONGOUS archaic software system), with around 10% of what I've been doing for the past year (advanced proof of concepts). I've known this for a few months and thought that that's okay for me, but just this morning it hit me like a truck: I have 0 interest in learning the SAP stuff, because I don't want to keep working...