Non vanishing one form on the circle












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I am trying to understand this classical example of a nowhere vanishing differential one form from Tu's Introduction to Manifolds




Let $omega = -ydx + xdy$ be restricted to $S^1 subset mathbb{R}^2$. Then $omega(X)$ is nowhere vanishing for every vector field $X in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$.




Now I understand that if $iota: S^1 hookrightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ is the inclusion map and $frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ is the vector field $frac{d}{dt} = c'(t) = (-sin t, cos t)$, then $iota_*(frac{d}{dt}) = -y partial_x + x partial_y$, and we have $omega(iota_*(frac{d}{dt})) = 1$. But if $z(t) in C^{infty}(S^1, mathbb{R})$ I believe that $z(t) frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ as well. Now my question, is the pushforward $iota_*(z(t) frac{d}{dt}) = z(t) (-y partial_x + x partial_y)?$ and if it is, then couldn't I set $z(t_0) = 0$ for some $t_0$ and thus $omega$ wouldn't be non vanishing?










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  • Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
    – Ted Shifrin
    2 days ago










  • But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
    – Amitai Yuval
    2 days ago










  • See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago
















0














I am trying to understand this classical example of a nowhere vanishing differential one form from Tu's Introduction to Manifolds




Let $omega = -ydx + xdy$ be restricted to $S^1 subset mathbb{R}^2$. Then $omega(X)$ is nowhere vanishing for every vector field $X in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$.




Now I understand that if $iota: S^1 hookrightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ is the inclusion map and $frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ is the vector field $frac{d}{dt} = c'(t) = (-sin t, cos t)$, then $iota_*(frac{d}{dt}) = -y partial_x + x partial_y$, and we have $omega(iota_*(frac{d}{dt})) = 1$. But if $z(t) in C^{infty}(S^1, mathbb{R})$ I believe that $z(t) frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ as well. Now my question, is the pushforward $iota_*(z(t) frac{d}{dt}) = z(t) (-y partial_x + x partial_y)?$ and if it is, then couldn't I set $z(t_0) = 0$ for some $t_0$ and thus $omega$ wouldn't be non vanishing?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
    – Ted Shifrin
    2 days ago










  • But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
    – Amitai Yuval
    2 days ago










  • See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago














0












0








0







I am trying to understand this classical example of a nowhere vanishing differential one form from Tu's Introduction to Manifolds




Let $omega = -ydx + xdy$ be restricted to $S^1 subset mathbb{R}^2$. Then $omega(X)$ is nowhere vanishing for every vector field $X in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$.




Now I understand that if $iota: S^1 hookrightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ is the inclusion map and $frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ is the vector field $frac{d}{dt} = c'(t) = (-sin t, cos t)$, then $iota_*(frac{d}{dt}) = -y partial_x + x partial_y$, and we have $omega(iota_*(frac{d}{dt})) = 1$. But if $z(t) in C^{infty}(S^1, mathbb{R})$ I believe that $z(t) frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ as well. Now my question, is the pushforward $iota_*(z(t) frac{d}{dt}) = z(t) (-y partial_x + x partial_y)?$ and if it is, then couldn't I set $z(t_0) = 0$ for some $t_0$ and thus $omega$ wouldn't be non vanishing?










share|cite|improve this question















I am trying to understand this classical example of a nowhere vanishing differential one form from Tu's Introduction to Manifolds




Let $omega = -ydx + xdy$ be restricted to $S^1 subset mathbb{R}^2$. Then $omega(X)$ is nowhere vanishing for every vector field $X in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$.




Now I understand that if $iota: S^1 hookrightarrow mathbb{R}^2$ is the inclusion map and $frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ is the vector field $frac{d}{dt} = c'(t) = (-sin t, cos t)$, then $iota_*(frac{d}{dt}) = -y partial_x + x partial_y$, and we have $omega(iota_*(frac{d}{dt})) = 1$. But if $z(t) in C^{infty}(S^1, mathbb{R})$ I believe that $z(t) frac{d}{dt} in mathfrak{X}(S^1)$ as well. Now my question, is the pushforward $iota_*(z(t) frac{d}{dt}) = z(t) (-y partial_x + x partial_y)?$ and if it is, then couldn't I set $z(t_0) = 0$ for some $t_0$ and thus $omega$ wouldn't be non vanishing?







differential-geometry differential-forms






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edited 2 days ago

























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Emilio Minichiello

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  • Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
    – Ted Shifrin
    2 days ago










  • But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
    – Amitai Yuval
    2 days ago










  • See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago


















  • Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
    – Ted Shifrin
    2 days ago










  • But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
    – Amitai Yuval
    2 days ago










  • See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
    – Emilio Minichiello
    2 days ago
















Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
– Ted Shifrin
2 days ago




Well, of course: If you multiply any $1$-form by the zero function, you end up with the zero $1$-form. But that is no longer the $omega$ you started with!
– Ted Shifrin
2 days ago












But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
– Emilio Minichiello
2 days ago




But I multiplied the vector field by a smooth function that vanishes at say a single point.
– Emilio Minichiello
2 days ago




1




1




Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
– Amitai Yuval
2 days ago




Of course, if your vector field $X$ vanishes at a point, then so does $omega(X)$. No $1$-form on any manifold can satisfy your requirement. The best you can get is a $1$-form $omega$, such that for any non-vanishing $X$ the contraction $omega(X)$ is non-vanishing. The differential form $omega$ in question indeed satisfies that.
– Amitai Yuval
2 days ago












See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
– Emilio Minichiello
2 days ago




See that's what I guessed, but Tu never properly defines "nowhere vanishing" so I thought I was mistaken. Thank you!
– Emilio Minichiello
2 days ago










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