A path-connected graph is connected as a graph












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This question regards the difference between being path-connected as a topological space, i.e. "Every two point $x,y in X$ can be connected with a path" and being connected in a graph sense: "A graph $G$ is connected if there is a path in $G$ between any pair of distinct vertices."



I can see that being connected in a graph sense implies being path connected in a topological sense, but how do I show that being path connected in a topological sense implies being connected as a graph (at least for finite graphs)?










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  • Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
    – Zachary Hunter
    Jan 4 at 15:22






  • 2




    @ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:18










  • And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:20


















0














This question regards the difference between being path-connected as a topological space, i.e. "Every two point $x,y in X$ can be connected with a path" and being connected in a graph sense: "A graph $G$ is connected if there is a path in $G$ between any pair of distinct vertices."



I can see that being connected in a graph sense implies being path connected in a topological sense, but how do I show that being path connected in a topological sense implies being connected as a graph (at least for finite graphs)?










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
    – Zachary Hunter
    Jan 4 at 15:22






  • 2




    @ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:18










  • And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:20
















0












0








0







This question regards the difference between being path-connected as a topological space, i.e. "Every two point $x,y in X$ can be connected with a path" and being connected in a graph sense: "A graph $G$ is connected if there is a path in $G$ between any pair of distinct vertices."



I can see that being connected in a graph sense implies being path connected in a topological sense, but how do I show that being path connected in a topological sense implies being connected as a graph (at least for finite graphs)?










share|cite|improve this question













This question regards the difference between being path-connected as a topological space, i.e. "Every two point $x,y in X$ can be connected with a path" and being connected in a graph sense: "A graph $G$ is connected if there is a path in $G$ between any pair of distinct vertices."



I can see that being connected in a graph sense implies being path connected in a topological sense, but how do I show that being path connected in a topological sense implies being connected as a graph (at least for finite graphs)?







general-topology graph-theory connectedness path-connected






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asked Jan 4 at 14:04









Rasmus Søgaard ChristensenRasmus Søgaard Christensen

617




617












  • Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
    – Zachary Hunter
    Jan 4 at 15:22






  • 2




    @ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:18










  • And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:20




















  • Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
    – Zachary Hunter
    Jan 4 at 15:22






  • 2




    @ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:18










  • And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
    – freakish
    Jan 4 at 16:20


















Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
– Zachary Hunter
Jan 4 at 15:22




Both say that there is a path between any two vertices, I don’t see what the problem is.
– Zachary Hunter
Jan 4 at 15:22




2




2




@ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
– freakish
Jan 4 at 16:18




@ZacharyHunter The problem is that the word "path" means different thing in each context. In graph theory it is a sequence of vertices $(v_1,ldots, v_n)$ such that there is an edge between $(v_i, v_{i+1})$. In topology it is a continuous function $f:[0,1]to G$. Note that here by $G$ we understand the topological realization of $G$.
– freakish
Jan 4 at 16:18












And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
– freakish
Jan 4 at 16:20






And as OP noted every graph path induces topological path. This is quite obvious, because every edge between $(v,w)$ induces a topological path. This is an immediate consequence of the construction of the topological realization. But the other way around seems harder. In other words: how to extract a sequence of vertices and edges from a given path $[0,1]to G$? Note subtleties: for example a topological path can pass infinitely many times through vertices (even in a finite graph). This cannot happen for a graph path.
– freakish
Jan 4 at 16:20












1 Answer
1






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Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph with vertices $V$ and edges $E$. Let $T(G)$ be its topological realization. I will use the following fact




Lemma. If $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs then $T(G)$ is a (topological) disjoint union of two spaces, each one being a topological realization of appropriate subgraphs of $G$. Furthermore if $v,win V$ lie in different (graph) components then $v,w$ lie in different connected components of $T(G)$.




Proof. Assume that that $G=G_1sqcup G_2$ as graphs, i.e. $G=G_1cup G_2$ and there is no path between $G_1$ and $G_2$. Consider $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ which are subsets of $T(G)$. It can be easily seen that $T(G_1)cap T(G_2)=emptyset$. Otherwise there would be either an edge between $G_1$ and $G_2$ or they would share a vertex. Since both $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ are closed (as full subgraphs always are) then $T(G)=T(G_1)sqcup T(G_2)$. $Box$



As you've noted it is trivial to see that every graph path induces topological path because edges correspond to subspaces of $T(G)$ homeomorphic to $[0,1]$.



Now assume that $lambda:[0,1]to T(G)$ is a path between two vertices $v,w$. Assume that there is no graph path from $v$ to $w$. It follows that $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs: one containing $v$ (the graph path component of $v$) and the other containing $w$ (the complement). By the lemma this implies that $T(G)$ is a disjoint union of appropriate topological realizations. In particular $v,w$ lie in different connected components and thus cannot be connected by a path. Contradiction.






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    Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph with vertices $V$ and edges $E$. Let $T(G)$ be its topological realization. I will use the following fact




    Lemma. If $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs then $T(G)$ is a (topological) disjoint union of two spaces, each one being a topological realization of appropriate subgraphs of $G$. Furthermore if $v,win V$ lie in different (graph) components then $v,w$ lie in different connected components of $T(G)$.




    Proof. Assume that that $G=G_1sqcup G_2$ as graphs, i.e. $G=G_1cup G_2$ and there is no path between $G_1$ and $G_2$. Consider $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ which are subsets of $T(G)$. It can be easily seen that $T(G_1)cap T(G_2)=emptyset$. Otherwise there would be either an edge between $G_1$ and $G_2$ or they would share a vertex. Since both $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ are closed (as full subgraphs always are) then $T(G)=T(G_1)sqcup T(G_2)$. $Box$



    As you've noted it is trivial to see that every graph path induces topological path because edges correspond to subspaces of $T(G)$ homeomorphic to $[0,1]$.



    Now assume that $lambda:[0,1]to T(G)$ is a path between two vertices $v,w$. Assume that there is no graph path from $v$ to $w$. It follows that $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs: one containing $v$ (the graph path component of $v$) and the other containing $w$ (the complement). By the lemma this implies that $T(G)$ is a disjoint union of appropriate topological realizations. In particular $v,w$ lie in different connected components and thus cannot be connected by a path. Contradiction.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      2














      Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph with vertices $V$ and edges $E$. Let $T(G)$ be its topological realization. I will use the following fact




      Lemma. If $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs then $T(G)$ is a (topological) disjoint union of two spaces, each one being a topological realization of appropriate subgraphs of $G$. Furthermore if $v,win V$ lie in different (graph) components then $v,w$ lie in different connected components of $T(G)$.




      Proof. Assume that that $G=G_1sqcup G_2$ as graphs, i.e. $G=G_1cup G_2$ and there is no path between $G_1$ and $G_2$. Consider $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ which are subsets of $T(G)$. It can be easily seen that $T(G_1)cap T(G_2)=emptyset$. Otherwise there would be either an edge between $G_1$ and $G_2$ or they would share a vertex. Since both $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ are closed (as full subgraphs always are) then $T(G)=T(G_1)sqcup T(G_2)$. $Box$



      As you've noted it is trivial to see that every graph path induces topological path because edges correspond to subspaces of $T(G)$ homeomorphic to $[0,1]$.



      Now assume that $lambda:[0,1]to T(G)$ is a path between two vertices $v,w$. Assume that there is no graph path from $v$ to $w$. It follows that $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs: one containing $v$ (the graph path component of $v$) and the other containing $w$ (the complement). By the lemma this implies that $T(G)$ is a disjoint union of appropriate topological realizations. In particular $v,w$ lie in different connected components and thus cannot be connected by a path. Contradiction.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        2












        2








        2






        Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph with vertices $V$ and edges $E$. Let $T(G)$ be its topological realization. I will use the following fact




        Lemma. If $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs then $T(G)$ is a (topological) disjoint union of two spaces, each one being a topological realization of appropriate subgraphs of $G$. Furthermore if $v,win V$ lie in different (graph) components then $v,w$ lie in different connected components of $T(G)$.




        Proof. Assume that that $G=G_1sqcup G_2$ as graphs, i.e. $G=G_1cup G_2$ and there is no path between $G_1$ and $G_2$. Consider $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ which are subsets of $T(G)$. It can be easily seen that $T(G_1)cap T(G_2)=emptyset$. Otherwise there would be either an edge between $G_1$ and $G_2$ or they would share a vertex. Since both $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ are closed (as full subgraphs always are) then $T(G)=T(G_1)sqcup T(G_2)$. $Box$



        As you've noted it is trivial to see that every graph path induces topological path because edges correspond to subspaces of $T(G)$ homeomorphic to $[0,1]$.



        Now assume that $lambda:[0,1]to T(G)$ is a path between two vertices $v,w$. Assume that there is no graph path from $v$ to $w$. It follows that $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs: one containing $v$ (the graph path component of $v$) and the other containing $w$ (the complement). By the lemma this implies that $T(G)$ is a disjoint union of appropriate topological realizations. In particular $v,w$ lie in different connected components and thus cannot be connected by a path. Contradiction.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Let $G=(V,E)$ be a graph with vertices $V$ and edges $E$. Let $T(G)$ be its topological realization. I will use the following fact




        Lemma. If $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs then $T(G)$ is a (topological) disjoint union of two spaces, each one being a topological realization of appropriate subgraphs of $G$. Furthermore if $v,win V$ lie in different (graph) components then $v,w$ lie in different connected components of $T(G)$.




        Proof. Assume that that $G=G_1sqcup G_2$ as graphs, i.e. $G=G_1cup G_2$ and there is no path between $G_1$ and $G_2$. Consider $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ which are subsets of $T(G)$. It can be easily seen that $T(G_1)cap T(G_2)=emptyset$. Otherwise there would be either an edge between $G_1$ and $G_2$ or they would share a vertex. Since both $T(G_1)$ and $T(G_2)$ are closed (as full subgraphs always are) then $T(G)=T(G_1)sqcup T(G_2)$. $Box$



        As you've noted it is trivial to see that every graph path induces topological path because edges correspond to subspaces of $T(G)$ homeomorphic to $[0,1]$.



        Now assume that $lambda:[0,1]to T(G)$ is a path between two vertices $v,w$. Assume that there is no graph path from $v$ to $w$. It follows that $G$ is a disjoint union of two subgraphs: one containing $v$ (the graph path component of $v$) and the other containing $w$ (the complement). By the lemma this implies that $T(G)$ is a disjoint union of appropriate topological realizations. In particular $v,w$ lie in different connected components and thus cannot be connected by a path. Contradiction.







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        edited yesterday

























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        freakishfreakish

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