compound interest when interest is a random variable
Say you are investing, and you on average get $2$% interest per bet, with a standard deviation of $3$%.
How can I get, within a confidence interval, an average amount I will have after 100 bets, if interest compounds?
probability
add a comment |
Say you are investing, and you on average get $2$% interest per bet, with a standard deviation of $3$%.
How can I get, within a confidence interval, an average amount I will have after 100 bets, if interest compounds?
probability
Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45
add a comment |
Say you are investing, and you on average get $2$% interest per bet, with a standard deviation of $3$%.
How can I get, within a confidence interval, an average amount I will have after 100 bets, if interest compounds?
probability
Say you are investing, and you on average get $2$% interest per bet, with a standard deviation of $3$%.
How can I get, within a confidence interval, an average amount I will have after 100 bets, if interest compounds?
probability
probability
asked Jan 4 at 9:25
FrankFrank
15710
15710
Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45
add a comment |
Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45
Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45
add a comment |
1 Answer
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This is actually a stochastic differential equation. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_Brownian_motion.
Say your bet starts at $S_0$, and we model it as $S_t$ over time. Then we can write
$$dS_{t}=mu S_{t},dt+sigma S_{t},dW_{t}$$
where $mu=.02$, $sigma=.03$. Here $W$ represents random brownian motion, so $dW$ is simply a draw from the standard normal. So letting each $dt = 1$, your interest rate is $dS_{t}=mu+sigma dW_{t}$. The analytic solution to this equation is
$$S_{t}=S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma W_{t}right)$$
The pdf of Brownian Motion $W_t$ is Normal with mean $0$ and variance $t$
$${displaystyle f_{W_{t}}(x)={frac {1}{sqrt {2pi t}}}e^{-x^{2}/(2t)}}$$
We want the pdf of $S_t$, $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. Because $S_{t} = g(W_{t})$ with
$$g(x) = S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma xright)$$
we can use the change of variable formula
$$f_{S_{t}}(x)=f_{W_{t}}(g^{-1}(x))|frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx}|$$
We have
$$g^{-1}(x) = frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma}$$
and
$$frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx} = frac{1}{sigma y}$$
Thus
$$f_{S_{t}}(x) = frac{1}{sigma y sqrt{2pi t}} exp{frac{-(frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma})^2}{2t}}$$
This is the general solution, plug in your values of $t=100$, $mu=.02$, and $sigma=.03$ and you have the pdf for your question!
Funnily enough after all that I'm not sure how to analytically find the mean and standard deviation of $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. But numerically it has mean $approx 7.244S_0$ and standard deviation $approx 2.176S_0$.
New contributor
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
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This is actually a stochastic differential equation. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_Brownian_motion.
Say your bet starts at $S_0$, and we model it as $S_t$ over time. Then we can write
$$dS_{t}=mu S_{t},dt+sigma S_{t},dW_{t}$$
where $mu=.02$, $sigma=.03$. Here $W$ represents random brownian motion, so $dW$ is simply a draw from the standard normal. So letting each $dt = 1$, your interest rate is $dS_{t}=mu+sigma dW_{t}$. The analytic solution to this equation is
$$S_{t}=S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma W_{t}right)$$
The pdf of Brownian Motion $W_t$ is Normal with mean $0$ and variance $t$
$${displaystyle f_{W_{t}}(x)={frac {1}{sqrt {2pi t}}}e^{-x^{2}/(2t)}}$$
We want the pdf of $S_t$, $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. Because $S_{t} = g(W_{t})$ with
$$g(x) = S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma xright)$$
we can use the change of variable formula
$$f_{S_{t}}(x)=f_{W_{t}}(g^{-1}(x))|frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx}|$$
We have
$$g^{-1}(x) = frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma}$$
and
$$frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx} = frac{1}{sigma y}$$
Thus
$$f_{S_{t}}(x) = frac{1}{sigma y sqrt{2pi t}} exp{frac{-(frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma})^2}{2t}}$$
This is the general solution, plug in your values of $t=100$, $mu=.02$, and $sigma=.03$ and you have the pdf for your question!
Funnily enough after all that I'm not sure how to analytically find the mean and standard deviation of $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. But numerically it has mean $approx 7.244S_0$ and standard deviation $approx 2.176S_0$.
New contributor
add a comment |
This is actually a stochastic differential equation. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_Brownian_motion.
Say your bet starts at $S_0$, and we model it as $S_t$ over time. Then we can write
$$dS_{t}=mu S_{t},dt+sigma S_{t},dW_{t}$$
where $mu=.02$, $sigma=.03$. Here $W$ represents random brownian motion, so $dW$ is simply a draw from the standard normal. So letting each $dt = 1$, your interest rate is $dS_{t}=mu+sigma dW_{t}$. The analytic solution to this equation is
$$S_{t}=S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma W_{t}right)$$
The pdf of Brownian Motion $W_t$ is Normal with mean $0$ and variance $t$
$${displaystyle f_{W_{t}}(x)={frac {1}{sqrt {2pi t}}}e^{-x^{2}/(2t)}}$$
We want the pdf of $S_t$, $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. Because $S_{t} = g(W_{t})$ with
$$g(x) = S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma xright)$$
we can use the change of variable formula
$$f_{S_{t}}(x)=f_{W_{t}}(g^{-1}(x))|frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx}|$$
We have
$$g^{-1}(x) = frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma}$$
and
$$frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx} = frac{1}{sigma y}$$
Thus
$$f_{S_{t}}(x) = frac{1}{sigma y sqrt{2pi t}} exp{frac{-(frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma})^2}{2t}}$$
This is the general solution, plug in your values of $t=100$, $mu=.02$, and $sigma=.03$ and you have the pdf for your question!
Funnily enough after all that I'm not sure how to analytically find the mean and standard deviation of $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. But numerically it has mean $approx 7.244S_0$ and standard deviation $approx 2.176S_0$.
New contributor
add a comment |
This is actually a stochastic differential equation. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_Brownian_motion.
Say your bet starts at $S_0$, and we model it as $S_t$ over time. Then we can write
$$dS_{t}=mu S_{t},dt+sigma S_{t},dW_{t}$$
where $mu=.02$, $sigma=.03$. Here $W$ represents random brownian motion, so $dW$ is simply a draw from the standard normal. So letting each $dt = 1$, your interest rate is $dS_{t}=mu+sigma dW_{t}$. The analytic solution to this equation is
$$S_{t}=S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma W_{t}right)$$
The pdf of Brownian Motion $W_t$ is Normal with mean $0$ and variance $t$
$${displaystyle f_{W_{t}}(x)={frac {1}{sqrt {2pi t}}}e^{-x^{2}/(2t)}}$$
We want the pdf of $S_t$, $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. Because $S_{t} = g(W_{t})$ with
$$g(x) = S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma xright)$$
we can use the change of variable formula
$$f_{S_{t}}(x)=f_{W_{t}}(g^{-1}(x))|frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx}|$$
We have
$$g^{-1}(x) = frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma}$$
and
$$frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx} = frac{1}{sigma y}$$
Thus
$$f_{S_{t}}(x) = frac{1}{sigma y sqrt{2pi t}} exp{frac{-(frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma})^2}{2t}}$$
This is the general solution, plug in your values of $t=100$, $mu=.02$, and $sigma=.03$ and you have the pdf for your question!
Funnily enough after all that I'm not sure how to analytically find the mean and standard deviation of $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. But numerically it has mean $approx 7.244S_0$ and standard deviation $approx 2.176S_0$.
New contributor
This is actually a stochastic differential equation. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geometric_Brownian_motion.
Say your bet starts at $S_0$, and we model it as $S_t$ over time. Then we can write
$$dS_{t}=mu S_{t},dt+sigma S_{t},dW_{t}$$
where $mu=.02$, $sigma=.03$. Here $W$ represents random brownian motion, so $dW$ is simply a draw from the standard normal. So letting each $dt = 1$, your interest rate is $dS_{t}=mu+sigma dW_{t}$. The analytic solution to this equation is
$$S_{t}=S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma W_{t}right)$$
The pdf of Brownian Motion $W_t$ is Normal with mean $0$ and variance $t$
$${displaystyle f_{W_{t}}(x)={frac {1}{sqrt {2pi t}}}e^{-x^{2}/(2t)}}$$
We want the pdf of $S_t$, $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. Because $S_{t} = g(W_{t})$ with
$$g(x) = S_{0}exp left(left(mu -{frac {sigma ^{2}}{2}}right)t+sigma xright)$$
we can use the change of variable formula
$$f_{S_{t}}(x)=f_{W_{t}}(g^{-1}(x))|frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx}|$$
We have
$$g^{-1}(x) = frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma}$$
and
$$frac{dg^{-1}(x)}{dx} = frac{1}{sigma y}$$
Thus
$$f_{S_{t}}(x) = frac{1}{sigma y sqrt{2pi t}} exp{frac{-(frac{ln{frac{y}{S_0}}-(mu-frac{sigma^2}{2})t}{sigma})^2}{2t}}$$
This is the general solution, plug in your values of $t=100$, $mu=.02$, and $sigma=.03$ and you have the pdf for your question!
Funnily enough after all that I'm not sure how to analytically find the mean and standard deviation of $f_{S_{t}}(x)$. But numerically it has mean $approx 7.244S_0$ and standard deviation $approx 2.176S_0$.
New contributor
New contributor
answered Jan 4 at 11:02
Erik ParkinsonErik Parkinson
9159
9159
New contributor
New contributor
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Interesting question. Maybe you can take the logarithm of the product, which will turn it into a sum. Then you have a sum of random variables ... Anyway, just a thought.
– Matti P.
Jan 4 at 9:30
I am considering running 10,000 simulations in matlab for 10 year predictions and just taking probabilities. I might be able to work out a confidence interval like that if I just find the expectation of 10,000 simulations. Hoping for a real analytical solution though.
– Frank
Jan 4 at 9:45