How can I prove $a$ had infinite order $Rightarrow$ $f(a)$ has infinite order? [duplicate]












0















This question already has an answer here:




  • Isomorphism $f$ preserves the order of an element?

    3 answers





Problem: Let $f : G → H$ be an isomorphism. Prove that if $a in G$
has infinite order, then so does $f(a)$, and if $a$ has finite order
$n$, then so does $f(a)$. Conclude that if $G$ has an element of some
order $n$ and $H$ does not, then $G notcong H$.




My proof: If $a$ has finite order $n$, then $a^n=e Rightarrow f(a^n) = f(a)^n = e$. So, $f(a)$ has order $n$.



How can I prove $a$ had infinite order $Rightarrow$ $f(a)$ has infinite order?










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marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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Jan 4 at 14:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











  • 1




    Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
    – Shaun
    Jan 4 at 14:06










  • I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:08










  • The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:09






  • 1




    Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
    – tilper
    Jan 4 at 14:10








  • 1




    @AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:21
















0















This question already has an answer here:




  • Isomorphism $f$ preserves the order of an element?

    3 answers





Problem: Let $f : G → H$ be an isomorphism. Prove that if $a in G$
has infinite order, then so does $f(a)$, and if $a$ has finite order
$n$, then so does $f(a)$. Conclude that if $G$ has an element of some
order $n$ and $H$ does not, then $G notcong H$.




My proof: If $a$ has finite order $n$, then $a^n=e Rightarrow f(a^n) = f(a)^n = e$. So, $f(a)$ has order $n$.



How can I prove $a$ had infinite order $Rightarrow$ $f(a)$ has infinite order?










share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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Jan 4 at 14:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.











  • 1




    Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
    – Shaun
    Jan 4 at 14:06










  • I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:08










  • The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:09






  • 1




    Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
    – tilper
    Jan 4 at 14:10








  • 1




    @AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:21














0












0








0








This question already has an answer here:




  • Isomorphism $f$ preserves the order of an element?

    3 answers





Problem: Let $f : G → H$ be an isomorphism. Prove that if $a in G$
has infinite order, then so does $f(a)$, and if $a$ has finite order
$n$, then so does $f(a)$. Conclude that if $G$ has an element of some
order $n$ and $H$ does not, then $G notcong H$.




My proof: If $a$ has finite order $n$, then $a^n=e Rightarrow f(a^n) = f(a)^n = e$. So, $f(a)$ has order $n$.



How can I prove $a$ had infinite order $Rightarrow$ $f(a)$ has infinite order?










share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:




  • Isomorphism $f$ preserves the order of an element?

    3 answers





Problem: Let $f : G → H$ be an isomorphism. Prove that if $a in G$
has infinite order, then so does $f(a)$, and if $a$ has finite order
$n$, then so does $f(a)$. Conclude that if $G$ has an element of some
order $n$ and $H$ does not, then $G notcong H$.




My proof: If $a$ has finite order $n$, then $a^n=e Rightarrow f(a^n) = f(a)^n = e$. So, $f(a)$ has order $n$.



How can I prove $a$ had infinite order $Rightarrow$ $f(a)$ has infinite order?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Isomorphism $f$ preserves the order of an element?

    3 answers








abstract-algebra group-theory






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asked Jan 4 at 14:05









MinhMinh

1788




1788




marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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Jan 4 at 14:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Dietrich Burde abstract-algebra
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Jan 4 at 14:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
    – Shaun
    Jan 4 at 14:06










  • I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:08










  • The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:09






  • 1




    Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
    – tilper
    Jan 4 at 14:10








  • 1




    @AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:21














  • 1




    Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
    – Shaun
    Jan 4 at 14:06










  • I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:08










  • The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:09






  • 1




    Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
    – tilper
    Jan 4 at 14:10








  • 1




    @AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
    – Minh
    Jan 4 at 14:21








1




1




Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
– Shaun
Jan 4 at 14:06




Have you considered the contrapositive statement?
– Shaun
Jan 4 at 14:06












I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:08




I know the contrapositive statement, but I couldn't describe it on my proof.
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:08












The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:09




The contrapositive statement give $f(a).f(a) dots neq e$
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:09




1




1




Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
– tilper
Jan 4 at 14:10






Since $f$ is an isomorphism, can't you use $f^{-1}$ combined with the thing you already showed? That should give you the contrapositive unless I glossed over something.
– tilper
Jan 4 at 14:10






1




1




@AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:21




@AshishK Are we need to prove $n$ is the least positive integer with $f(a)^n = e$?
– Minh
Jan 4 at 14:21










1 Answer
1






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0














Your proof works in the other direction as well:
$$
e = f(a)^n = f(a^n) overset{f text{ isomorphism}}{implies} e = f^{-1}(e) = a^n
$$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0














    Your proof works in the other direction as well:
    $$
    e = f(a)^n = f(a^n) overset{f text{ isomorphism}}{implies} e = f^{-1}(e) = a^n
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      0














      Your proof works in the other direction as well:
      $$
      e = f(a)^n = f(a^n) overset{f text{ isomorphism}}{implies} e = f^{-1}(e) = a^n
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        0












        0








        0






        Your proof works in the other direction as well:
        $$
        e = f(a)^n = f(a^n) overset{f text{ isomorphism}}{implies} e = f^{-1}(e) = a^n
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Your proof works in the other direction as well:
        $$
        e = f(a)^n = f(a^n) overset{f text{ isomorphism}}{implies} e = f^{-1}(e) = a^n
        $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 4 at 14:12









        bruderjakob17bruderjakob17

        1537




        1537















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