When is it true that $nexists gne e$ such that $phi(g)=e$ for a group homomorphism $phi: Gmapsto H$ and...












1














I was thinking if it is possible to have $gne e$ such that $phi(g)=e$ for a group homomorphism $phi: Gmapsto H$



It's not always true because $phi(2)=0$ when $G=Bbb Z_4$ and $H=Bbb Z_2$



So what if $|H|notmid|G|$?



We have that $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$ and $|H|$ because $phi(langle grangle)$ is a subgroup of $H$



If we had $(|H|,phi(langle grangle))=1$ then we would have $o(phi(g))=1$ and so $phi(g)=e$



What other necessary/sufficient constraints are there for the existance of $gin Gbackslash{e}$ with $phi(g)=e$?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:18










  • My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:20










  • Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:22








  • 4




    A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:22












  • And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:25
















1














I was thinking if it is possible to have $gne e$ such that $phi(g)=e$ for a group homomorphism $phi: Gmapsto H$



It's not always true because $phi(2)=0$ when $G=Bbb Z_4$ and $H=Bbb Z_2$



So what if $|H|notmid|G|$?



We have that $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$ and $|H|$ because $phi(langle grangle)$ is a subgroup of $H$



If we had $(|H|,phi(langle grangle))=1$ then we would have $o(phi(g))=1$ and so $phi(g)=e$



What other necessary/sufficient constraints are there for the existance of $gin Gbackslash{e}$ with $phi(g)=e$?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:18










  • My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:20










  • Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:22








  • 4




    A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:22












  • And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:25














1












1








1







I was thinking if it is possible to have $gne e$ such that $phi(g)=e$ for a group homomorphism $phi: Gmapsto H$



It's not always true because $phi(2)=0$ when $G=Bbb Z_4$ and $H=Bbb Z_2$



So what if $|H|notmid|G|$?



We have that $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$ and $|H|$ because $phi(langle grangle)$ is a subgroup of $H$



If we had $(|H|,phi(langle grangle))=1$ then we would have $o(phi(g))=1$ and so $phi(g)=e$



What other necessary/sufficient constraints are there for the existance of $gin Gbackslash{e}$ with $phi(g)=e$?










share|cite|improve this question















I was thinking if it is possible to have $gne e$ such that $phi(g)=e$ for a group homomorphism $phi: Gmapsto H$



It's not always true because $phi(2)=0$ when $G=Bbb Z_4$ and $H=Bbb Z_2$



So what if $|H|notmid|G|$?



We have that $o(phi(g))$ divides $o(g)$ and $|H|$ because $phi(langle grangle)$ is a subgroup of $H$



If we had $(|H|,phi(langle grangle))=1$ then we would have $o(phi(g))=1$ and so $phi(g)=e$



What other necessary/sufficient constraints are there for the existance of $gin Gbackslash{e}$ with $phi(g)=e$?







abstract-algebra group-theory group-homomorphism






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 4 at 13:41









Scientifica

6,37641335




6,37641335










asked Jan 4 at 13:16









John CataldoJohn Cataldo

1,0961216




1,0961216








  • 1




    Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:18










  • My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:20










  • Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:22








  • 4




    A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:22












  • And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:25














  • 1




    Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:18










  • My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:20










  • Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
    – lulu
    Jan 4 at 13:22








  • 4




    A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:22












  • And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:25








1




1




Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
– lulu
Jan 4 at 13:18




Not sure I get the question. For any groups $G,H$ you always have the trivial homomorphism $Gto H$ which takes every element to the identity.
– lulu
Jan 4 at 13:18












My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:20




My question is about the conditions that would assure $exists gin G~~:~phi(gne e)=e$. So $phi=id$ is a condition but my question is more general
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:20












Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
– lulu
Jan 4 at 13:22






Well, if $phi$ has no non-trivial elements in its kernel then $phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G$, in which case of course we have $|H|, |,|G|$ (assuming the groups to be finite, which you never state). Is that what you wanted? Conversely, if $G$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of $H$ then that isomorphism gives you an injection from $G$ to $H$.
– lulu
Jan 4 at 13:22






4




4




A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:22






A more concise way to rephrase your question (as I understand it): under what conditions are there no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$. The answer to this is that an injective homomorphism exists iff $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$.
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:22














And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:25




And indeed, if $|G| nmid |H|$, then there are no injective homomorphisms from $G$ to $H$.
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:25










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3














First of all, let's use a fact to make your question a bit neater.




The following conditions are equivalent:





  • $phi : G to H$ is injective (one-to-one)

  • $ker phi = {e}$

  • There does not exist an element $g in G$ with $g neq e$ such that $phi(g) = e$




With this in mind, I believe that you are asking this: under what conditions does there exist an injective homomorphism from $G$ to $H$? The answer to this question is that such a homomorphism will exist if and only if $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$. For the example of $G = Bbb Z_2$ and $H = Bbb Z_4$, we see that the map $phi([n]_2) = [2n]_4$ is injective, and $Bbb Z_4$ contains the subgroup ${[0]_4,[2]_4}$ which is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_2$.



One way to prove this is to use the first isomorphism theorem. In particular, we know that for any homomorphism, $phi(G) cong G/kerphi$. However, if $ker phi = {e}$, then we have $G/ker phi cong G$. So, if $phi$ is an injective homomorphism, then $phi(G) cong G$, and $phi(G)$ (the image of $phi$) is a subgroup of $H$.



Conversely, suppose that $H$ has a subgroup $K subset H$ and that $K cong G$. Then, an isomorphism $phi:G to K$ means that we have the injective homomorphism $i_K circ phi:G to H$, where $i_K:K to H$ is the inclusion map.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • @Mark good catch, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:42










  • Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:49










  • @JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:50










  • "$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:51












  • @JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:53











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3














First of all, let's use a fact to make your question a bit neater.




The following conditions are equivalent:





  • $phi : G to H$ is injective (one-to-one)

  • $ker phi = {e}$

  • There does not exist an element $g in G$ with $g neq e$ such that $phi(g) = e$




With this in mind, I believe that you are asking this: under what conditions does there exist an injective homomorphism from $G$ to $H$? The answer to this question is that such a homomorphism will exist if and only if $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$. For the example of $G = Bbb Z_2$ and $H = Bbb Z_4$, we see that the map $phi([n]_2) = [2n]_4$ is injective, and $Bbb Z_4$ contains the subgroup ${[0]_4,[2]_4}$ which is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_2$.



One way to prove this is to use the first isomorphism theorem. In particular, we know that for any homomorphism, $phi(G) cong G/kerphi$. However, if $ker phi = {e}$, then we have $G/ker phi cong G$. So, if $phi$ is an injective homomorphism, then $phi(G) cong G$, and $phi(G)$ (the image of $phi$) is a subgroup of $H$.



Conversely, suppose that $H$ has a subgroup $K subset H$ and that $K cong G$. Then, an isomorphism $phi:G to K$ means that we have the injective homomorphism $i_K circ phi:G to H$, where $i_K:K to H$ is the inclusion map.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • @Mark good catch, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:42










  • Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:49










  • @JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:50










  • "$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:51












  • @JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:53
















3














First of all, let's use a fact to make your question a bit neater.




The following conditions are equivalent:





  • $phi : G to H$ is injective (one-to-one)

  • $ker phi = {e}$

  • There does not exist an element $g in G$ with $g neq e$ such that $phi(g) = e$




With this in mind, I believe that you are asking this: under what conditions does there exist an injective homomorphism from $G$ to $H$? The answer to this question is that such a homomorphism will exist if and only if $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$. For the example of $G = Bbb Z_2$ and $H = Bbb Z_4$, we see that the map $phi([n]_2) = [2n]_4$ is injective, and $Bbb Z_4$ contains the subgroup ${[0]_4,[2]_4}$ which is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_2$.



One way to prove this is to use the first isomorphism theorem. In particular, we know that for any homomorphism, $phi(G) cong G/kerphi$. However, if $ker phi = {e}$, then we have $G/ker phi cong G$. So, if $phi$ is an injective homomorphism, then $phi(G) cong G$, and $phi(G)$ (the image of $phi$) is a subgroup of $H$.



Conversely, suppose that $H$ has a subgroup $K subset H$ and that $K cong G$. Then, an isomorphism $phi:G to K$ means that we have the injective homomorphism $i_K circ phi:G to H$, where $i_K:K to H$ is the inclusion map.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • @Mark good catch, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:42










  • Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:49










  • @JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:50










  • "$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:51












  • @JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:53














3












3








3






First of all, let's use a fact to make your question a bit neater.




The following conditions are equivalent:





  • $phi : G to H$ is injective (one-to-one)

  • $ker phi = {e}$

  • There does not exist an element $g in G$ with $g neq e$ such that $phi(g) = e$




With this in mind, I believe that you are asking this: under what conditions does there exist an injective homomorphism from $G$ to $H$? The answer to this question is that such a homomorphism will exist if and only if $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$. For the example of $G = Bbb Z_2$ and $H = Bbb Z_4$, we see that the map $phi([n]_2) = [2n]_4$ is injective, and $Bbb Z_4$ contains the subgroup ${[0]_4,[2]_4}$ which is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_2$.



One way to prove this is to use the first isomorphism theorem. In particular, we know that for any homomorphism, $phi(G) cong G/kerphi$. However, if $ker phi = {e}$, then we have $G/ker phi cong G$. So, if $phi$ is an injective homomorphism, then $phi(G) cong G$, and $phi(G)$ (the image of $phi$) is a subgroup of $H$.



Conversely, suppose that $H$ has a subgroup $K subset H$ and that $K cong G$. Then, an isomorphism $phi:G to K$ means that we have the injective homomorphism $i_K circ phi:G to H$, where $i_K:K to H$ is the inclusion map.






share|cite|improve this answer














First of all, let's use a fact to make your question a bit neater.




The following conditions are equivalent:





  • $phi : G to H$ is injective (one-to-one)

  • $ker phi = {e}$

  • There does not exist an element $g in G$ with $g neq e$ such that $phi(g) = e$




With this in mind, I believe that you are asking this: under what conditions does there exist an injective homomorphism from $G$ to $H$? The answer to this question is that such a homomorphism will exist if and only if $H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $G$. For the example of $G = Bbb Z_2$ and $H = Bbb Z_4$, we see that the map $phi([n]_2) = [2n]_4$ is injective, and $Bbb Z_4$ contains the subgroup ${[0]_4,[2]_4}$ which is isomorphic to $Bbb Z_2$.



One way to prove this is to use the first isomorphism theorem. In particular, we know that for any homomorphism, $phi(G) cong G/kerphi$. However, if $ker phi = {e}$, then we have $G/ker phi cong G$. So, if $phi$ is an injective homomorphism, then $phi(G) cong G$, and $phi(G)$ (the image of $phi$) is a subgroup of $H$.



Conversely, suppose that $H$ has a subgroup $K subset H$ and that $K cong G$. Then, an isomorphism $phi:G to K$ means that we have the injective homomorphism $i_K circ phi:G to H$, where $i_K:K to H$ is the inclusion map.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 4 at 13:52

























answered Jan 4 at 13:39









OmnomnomnomOmnomnomnom

127k788176




127k788176












  • @Mark good catch, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:42










  • Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:49










  • @JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:50










  • "$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:51












  • @JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:53


















  • @Mark good catch, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:42










  • Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:49










  • @JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:50










  • "$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
    – John Cataldo
    Jan 4 at 13:51












  • @JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
    – Omnomnomnom
    Jan 4 at 13:53
















@Mark good catch, thanks
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:42




@Mark good catch, thanks
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:42












Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:49




Thanks! (I think you meant big $G$ and $Kcong G$)
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:49












@JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:50




@JohnCataldo I don't see what you mean by "big $G$"
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:50












"$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:51






"$H$ contains a subgroup isomorphic to $g$"
– John Cataldo
Jan 4 at 13:51














@JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:53




@JohnCataldo that makes sense now, thanks
– Omnomnomnom
Jan 4 at 13:53


















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