A question on max norm
This is question 30 in chapter 7 from royden
"Let ${f_n}$ be a sequence in C[a, b] and $sum a_k$ a convergent series of positive numbers such
that $|| f_{k+1}- f_k||_{max} leq a_k, forall k$
Prove that
$|f_{k+n}(x)- f_k(x) | leq || f_{k+n}- f_k||_{max} leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}a_j , forall k,n $
Conclude that there is a function f$in$ C[a, b] such that ${fn} rightarrow f$ uniformly on [a, b] "
I know that, it is easy to solve this question if the series above starts from j=k , by adding and subtracting $f_{k+1},..., f_{k+n-1 } $ to the leftside and useing the triangular inequality.
But in this problem the seris starts from j=n.
I tried hard to solve it., however I have not any good idea.
Can you help me??
Any suggestion will be appreciated.
real-analysis linear-algebra functional-analysis measure-theory
New contributor
add a comment |
This is question 30 in chapter 7 from royden
"Let ${f_n}$ be a sequence in C[a, b] and $sum a_k$ a convergent series of positive numbers such
that $|| f_{k+1}- f_k||_{max} leq a_k, forall k$
Prove that
$|f_{k+n}(x)- f_k(x) | leq || f_{k+n}- f_k||_{max} leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}a_j , forall k,n $
Conclude that there is a function f$in$ C[a, b] such that ${fn} rightarrow f$ uniformly on [a, b] "
I know that, it is easy to solve this question if the series above starts from j=k , by adding and subtracting $f_{k+1},..., f_{k+n-1 } $ to the leftside and useing the triangular inequality.
But in this problem the seris starts from j=n.
I tried hard to solve it., however I have not any good idea.
Can you help me??
Any suggestion will be appreciated.
real-analysis linear-algebra functional-analysis measure-theory
New contributor
This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
1
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
1
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday
add a comment |
This is question 30 in chapter 7 from royden
"Let ${f_n}$ be a sequence in C[a, b] and $sum a_k$ a convergent series of positive numbers such
that $|| f_{k+1}- f_k||_{max} leq a_k, forall k$
Prove that
$|f_{k+n}(x)- f_k(x) | leq || f_{k+n}- f_k||_{max} leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}a_j , forall k,n $
Conclude that there is a function f$in$ C[a, b] such that ${fn} rightarrow f$ uniformly on [a, b] "
I know that, it is easy to solve this question if the series above starts from j=k , by adding and subtracting $f_{k+1},..., f_{k+n-1 } $ to the leftside and useing the triangular inequality.
But in this problem the seris starts from j=n.
I tried hard to solve it., however I have not any good idea.
Can you help me??
Any suggestion will be appreciated.
real-analysis linear-algebra functional-analysis measure-theory
New contributor
This is question 30 in chapter 7 from royden
"Let ${f_n}$ be a sequence in C[a, b] and $sum a_k$ a convergent series of positive numbers such
that $|| f_{k+1}- f_k||_{max} leq a_k, forall k$
Prove that
$|f_{k+n}(x)- f_k(x) | leq || f_{k+n}- f_k||_{max} leq sum_{j=n}^{infty}a_j , forall k,n $
Conclude that there is a function f$in$ C[a, b] such that ${fn} rightarrow f$ uniformly on [a, b] "
I know that, it is easy to solve this question if the series above starts from j=k , by adding and subtracting $f_{k+1},..., f_{k+n-1 } $ to the leftside and useing the triangular inequality.
But in this problem the seris starts from j=n.
I tried hard to solve it., however I have not any good idea.
Can you help me??
Any suggestion will be appreciated.
real-analysis linear-algebra functional-analysis measure-theory
real-analysis linear-algebra functional-analysis measure-theory
New contributor
New contributor
edited yesterday
Davide Giraudo
125k16150260
125k16150260
New contributor
asked yesterday
Mano.kiko
61
61
New contributor
New contributor
This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
1
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
1
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday
add a comment |
This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
1
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
1
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday
This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
1
1
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
1
1
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday
add a comment |
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This seems like a typo to me. What you say you can prove ought to be the indended meaning.
– quid♦
yesterday
1
Well, the statement is not true and that's why you couldn't solve it. It looks like a typo. To see this, suppose it's true and take $n$ to $infty$.Then we get $lim_n f_n = f_k$ for all $k$ which is absurd.
– Song
yesterday
1
To elaborate slightly on my first comment, as a "test" consider constant functions $f_k$ defined via $f_{k+1}(x) = f_k(x)+a_k$.
– quid♦
yesterday
Thank you so much
– Mano.kiko
yesterday