Time derivative of curl












3














I'm confused about the time derivative of the curl. If the following true? Where do I go wrong?



$$frac { partial } { partial t} vec{nabla} times vec{v} = frac{partial vec nabla }{ partial t} times vec v + vec nabla times frac { partial vec v }{partial t} $$



The reason I'm confused is that the second term looks exactly like the first term, but the second term doesn't necessarily/immediately look like it vanishes.



If it does vanish, is it because $$ frac {partial vec v}{partial t} = vec a = vec nabla Phi $$ and since $mathrm {curl(grad (Phi))} = 0$, my thought that the first term is just like the LHS is true?



Something seems wrong here to me because it seems too strong a hypothesis to consider the time derivative of the vector field, $vec v$ conservative.










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    3














    I'm confused about the time derivative of the curl. If the following true? Where do I go wrong?



    $$frac { partial } { partial t} vec{nabla} times vec{v} = frac{partial vec nabla }{ partial t} times vec v + vec nabla times frac { partial vec v }{partial t} $$



    The reason I'm confused is that the second term looks exactly like the first term, but the second term doesn't necessarily/immediately look like it vanishes.



    If it does vanish, is it because $$ frac {partial vec v}{partial t} = vec a = vec nabla Phi $$ and since $mathrm {curl(grad (Phi))} = 0$, my thought that the first term is just like the LHS is true?



    Something seems wrong here to me because it seems too strong a hypothesis to consider the time derivative of the vector field, $vec v$ conservative.










    share|cite|improve this question
















    bumped to the homepage by Community yesterday


    This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.


















      3












      3








      3







      I'm confused about the time derivative of the curl. If the following true? Where do I go wrong?



      $$frac { partial } { partial t} vec{nabla} times vec{v} = frac{partial vec nabla }{ partial t} times vec v + vec nabla times frac { partial vec v }{partial t} $$



      The reason I'm confused is that the second term looks exactly like the first term, but the second term doesn't necessarily/immediately look like it vanishes.



      If it does vanish, is it because $$ frac {partial vec v}{partial t} = vec a = vec nabla Phi $$ and since $mathrm {curl(grad (Phi))} = 0$, my thought that the first term is just like the LHS is true?



      Something seems wrong here to me because it seems too strong a hypothesis to consider the time derivative of the vector field, $vec v$ conservative.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I'm confused about the time derivative of the curl. If the following true? Where do I go wrong?



      $$frac { partial } { partial t} vec{nabla} times vec{v} = frac{partial vec nabla }{ partial t} times vec v + vec nabla times frac { partial vec v }{partial t} $$



      The reason I'm confused is that the second term looks exactly like the first term, but the second term doesn't necessarily/immediately look like it vanishes.



      If it does vanish, is it because $$ frac {partial vec v}{partial t} = vec a = vec nabla Phi $$ and since $mathrm {curl(grad (Phi))} = 0$, my thought that the first term is just like the LHS is true?



      Something seems wrong here to me because it seems too strong a hypothesis to consider the time derivative of the vector field, $vec v$ conservative.







      calculus vectors vector-analysis






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      edited Jun 30 '17 at 21:02

























      asked Jun 30 '17 at 20:54









      jaslibra

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          0














          The notation $nabla times ,cdot,$ is a shorthand for the curl operator, but it should not be taken too literally: In particular, $nabla$ does not signify a vector field, and hence the usual Leibniz (product) rule for the cross product does not apply literally.



          Hint If ${bf v} = (v^1, v^2, v^3)$ is a (time-dependent) vector field on $Bbb R^3_{xyz}$ that is sufficiently smooth ($C^2$ will do), then, e.g., the first component of $$frac{d}{dt}(nabla times {bf v})$$ is
          $$frac{partial}{partial t}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial z} - frac{partial v^3}{partial y}right) = frac{partial}{partial z}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial t}right) - frac{partial}{partial y}left(frac{partial v^3}{partial t}right) .$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
            – jaslibra
            Jul 1 '17 at 13:24












          • The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
            – Travis
            Jul 1 '17 at 17:02










          • Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
            – Travis
            Jul 18 '17 at 12:35



















          0














          It's best when you're working with not-true-vectors such as curl to calculate from first principles: $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}timesvec{v}$ has $i$th component $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial t}frac{partial}{partial x_j} v_k$, with implicit summation over repeated indices. Since the partial derivatives commute, this expression is $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial x_j} frac{partial}{partial t}v_k$, which is the $i$th component of $vec{nabla}timesfrac{partial}{partial t}vec{v}$. In other words, one of the terms expected from a naïve Leibniz rule vanishes. Please don't interpret this as meaning $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}=vec{0}$, whatever that would mean.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
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            2 Answers
            2






            active

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            active

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            active

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            0














            The notation $nabla times ,cdot,$ is a shorthand for the curl operator, but it should not be taken too literally: In particular, $nabla$ does not signify a vector field, and hence the usual Leibniz (product) rule for the cross product does not apply literally.



            Hint If ${bf v} = (v^1, v^2, v^3)$ is a (time-dependent) vector field on $Bbb R^3_{xyz}$ that is sufficiently smooth ($C^2$ will do), then, e.g., the first component of $$frac{d}{dt}(nabla times {bf v})$$ is
            $$frac{partial}{partial t}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial z} - frac{partial v^3}{partial y}right) = frac{partial}{partial z}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial t}right) - frac{partial}{partial y}left(frac{partial v^3}{partial t}right) .$$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
              – jaslibra
              Jul 1 '17 at 13:24












            • The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
              – Travis
              Jul 1 '17 at 17:02










            • Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
              – Travis
              Jul 18 '17 at 12:35
















            0














            The notation $nabla times ,cdot,$ is a shorthand for the curl operator, but it should not be taken too literally: In particular, $nabla$ does not signify a vector field, and hence the usual Leibniz (product) rule for the cross product does not apply literally.



            Hint If ${bf v} = (v^1, v^2, v^3)$ is a (time-dependent) vector field on $Bbb R^3_{xyz}$ that is sufficiently smooth ($C^2$ will do), then, e.g., the first component of $$frac{d}{dt}(nabla times {bf v})$$ is
            $$frac{partial}{partial t}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial z} - frac{partial v^3}{partial y}right) = frac{partial}{partial z}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial t}right) - frac{partial}{partial y}left(frac{partial v^3}{partial t}right) .$$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
              – jaslibra
              Jul 1 '17 at 13:24












            • The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
              – Travis
              Jul 1 '17 at 17:02










            • Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
              – Travis
              Jul 18 '17 at 12:35














            0












            0








            0






            The notation $nabla times ,cdot,$ is a shorthand for the curl operator, but it should not be taken too literally: In particular, $nabla$ does not signify a vector field, and hence the usual Leibniz (product) rule for the cross product does not apply literally.



            Hint If ${bf v} = (v^1, v^2, v^3)$ is a (time-dependent) vector field on $Bbb R^3_{xyz}$ that is sufficiently smooth ($C^2$ will do), then, e.g., the first component of $$frac{d}{dt}(nabla times {bf v})$$ is
            $$frac{partial}{partial t}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial z} - frac{partial v^3}{partial y}right) = frac{partial}{partial z}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial t}right) - frac{partial}{partial y}left(frac{partial v^3}{partial t}right) .$$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            The notation $nabla times ,cdot,$ is a shorthand for the curl operator, but it should not be taken too literally: In particular, $nabla$ does not signify a vector field, and hence the usual Leibniz (product) rule for the cross product does not apply literally.



            Hint If ${bf v} = (v^1, v^2, v^3)$ is a (time-dependent) vector field on $Bbb R^3_{xyz}$ that is sufficiently smooth ($C^2$ will do), then, e.g., the first component of $$frac{d}{dt}(nabla times {bf v})$$ is
            $$frac{partial}{partial t}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial z} - frac{partial v^3}{partial y}right) = frac{partial}{partial z}left(frac{partial v^2}{partial t}right) - frac{partial}{partial y}left(frac{partial v^3}{partial t}right) .$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jun 30 '17 at 21:46









            Travis

            59.8k767146




            59.8k767146












            • What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
              – jaslibra
              Jul 1 '17 at 13:24












            • The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
              – Travis
              Jul 1 '17 at 17:02










            • Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
              – Travis
              Jul 18 '17 at 12:35


















            • What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
              – jaslibra
              Jul 1 '17 at 13:24












            • The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
              – Travis
              Jul 1 '17 at 17:02










            • Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
              – Travis
              Jul 18 '17 at 12:35
















            What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
            – jaslibra
            Jul 1 '17 at 13:24






            What happened to $v^1$? Is this just demonstrating operator commutativity?
            – jaslibra
            Jul 1 '17 at 13:24














            The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
            – Travis
            Jul 1 '17 at 17:02




            The last display equation just gives the first component of the derivative. And yes, the point is that $frac{partial}{partial t}$ commutes with $nabla times ,cdot,$.
            – Travis
            Jul 1 '17 at 17:02












            Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
            – Travis
            Jul 18 '17 at 12:35




            Perhaps the downvoter would explain their objection?
            – Travis
            Jul 18 '17 at 12:35











            0














            It's best when you're working with not-true-vectors such as curl to calculate from first principles: $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}timesvec{v}$ has $i$th component $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial t}frac{partial}{partial x_j} v_k$, with implicit summation over repeated indices. Since the partial derivatives commute, this expression is $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial x_j} frac{partial}{partial t}v_k$, which is the $i$th component of $vec{nabla}timesfrac{partial}{partial t}vec{v}$. In other words, one of the terms expected from a naïve Leibniz rule vanishes. Please don't interpret this as meaning $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}=vec{0}$, whatever that would mean.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              0














              It's best when you're working with not-true-vectors such as curl to calculate from first principles: $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}timesvec{v}$ has $i$th component $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial t}frac{partial}{partial x_j} v_k$, with implicit summation over repeated indices. Since the partial derivatives commute, this expression is $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial x_j} frac{partial}{partial t}v_k$, which is the $i$th component of $vec{nabla}timesfrac{partial}{partial t}vec{v}$. In other words, one of the terms expected from a naïve Leibniz rule vanishes. Please don't interpret this as meaning $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}=vec{0}$, whatever that would mean.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                0












                0








                0






                It's best when you're working with not-true-vectors such as curl to calculate from first principles: $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}timesvec{v}$ has $i$th component $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial t}frac{partial}{partial x_j} v_k$, with implicit summation over repeated indices. Since the partial derivatives commute, this expression is $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial x_j} frac{partial}{partial t}v_k$, which is the $i$th component of $vec{nabla}timesfrac{partial}{partial t}vec{v}$. In other words, one of the terms expected from a naïve Leibniz rule vanishes. Please don't interpret this as meaning $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}=vec{0}$, whatever that would mean.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                It's best when you're working with not-true-vectors such as curl to calculate from first principles: $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}timesvec{v}$ has $i$th component $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial t}frac{partial}{partial x_j} v_k$, with implicit summation over repeated indices. Since the partial derivatives commute, this expression is $epsilon_{ijk}frac{partial}{partial x_j} frac{partial}{partial t}v_k$, which is the $i$th component of $vec{nabla}timesfrac{partial}{partial t}vec{v}$. In other words, one of the terms expected from a naïve Leibniz rule vanishes. Please don't interpret this as meaning $frac{partial}{partial t}vec{nabla}=vec{0}$, whatever that would mean.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Nov 3 '18 at 14:06









                J.G.

                23.1k22137




                23.1k22137






























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