Computing a derivative through Lie series
Consider the $N$-dimensional autonomous system of ODEs
$$dot{x}= f(x),$$
where a locally unique solution $x(t)$, starting from the initial condition $x$, is denoted as $x(t)=phi(t,x)$. Assume that
$$Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
For the system above, assume that $f(x)$ is analytic (that is, its Taylor series converges to $f$ itself). Let the differential operator $L[xi]$ be defined as
$$L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$$
Show that $phi(t,x)$ can be expressed as
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
where $L^n[xi]$ is the shorthand notation for
$$L^n[xi]=underbrace{L[L[cdots{L}[xi]}_{ntext{-times}}cdots]]$$
Potentially related questions:
- How to properly apply the Lie Series
- Exponential of a function times derivative
- How to derive these Lie Series formulas
I'm stuck on how to approach this problem. Here is all the information that I have gathered so far -
Through this question, the one dimensional situation states that $e^{apartial}f(x)=f(a+x)$ (we can think of this as a shift operator).
Inside Ordinary Differential Equations and Dynamical Systems by Teschl, we have the following Lemma (Lemma $6.2$ on page $190$ of the text).
Lemma (Straightening out of vector fields): Suppose $f(x_0)neq0$. Then, there is a local coordinate transform $y=varphi(x)$ such that $dot{x}=f(x)$ is transformed to
$$dot{y}=(1,0,...,0)$$
Teschl list a similar problem on page $191$ (problem $6.5$ for one-parameter lie groups) in which he states that
Hint: The Taylor coefficients are the derivatives which can be obtained by
differentiating the differential equation.
So, I think that I need to apply what was done in this question alongside Lemma 6.2. I will have to consider what a vector field means in this context. I might be able to make the assumption that a vector field is just a linear operator. We are given that
$dot{x}= f(x)$ is an autonomous system of ODEs- $x(t)=phi(t,x)$
- $Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$
- $L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$
and we need to show that
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
I also see that Roger Howe wrote a good introduction to lie theory in these notes (he goes through one-parameter lie groups on pages $604-606$).
This appears to be an extremely difficult problem for someone unfamiliar with lie theory. I am going to see if I can figure out a more direct approach.
differential-equations lie-groups differential-operators
add a comment |
Consider the $N$-dimensional autonomous system of ODEs
$$dot{x}= f(x),$$
where a locally unique solution $x(t)$, starting from the initial condition $x$, is denoted as $x(t)=phi(t,x)$. Assume that
$$Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
For the system above, assume that $f(x)$ is analytic (that is, its Taylor series converges to $f$ itself). Let the differential operator $L[xi]$ be defined as
$$L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$$
Show that $phi(t,x)$ can be expressed as
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
where $L^n[xi]$ is the shorthand notation for
$$L^n[xi]=underbrace{L[L[cdots{L}[xi]}_{ntext{-times}}cdots]]$$
Potentially related questions:
- How to properly apply the Lie Series
- Exponential of a function times derivative
- How to derive these Lie Series formulas
I'm stuck on how to approach this problem. Here is all the information that I have gathered so far -
Through this question, the one dimensional situation states that $e^{apartial}f(x)=f(a+x)$ (we can think of this as a shift operator).
Inside Ordinary Differential Equations and Dynamical Systems by Teschl, we have the following Lemma (Lemma $6.2$ on page $190$ of the text).
Lemma (Straightening out of vector fields): Suppose $f(x_0)neq0$. Then, there is a local coordinate transform $y=varphi(x)$ such that $dot{x}=f(x)$ is transformed to
$$dot{y}=(1,0,...,0)$$
Teschl list a similar problem on page $191$ (problem $6.5$ for one-parameter lie groups) in which he states that
Hint: The Taylor coefficients are the derivatives which can be obtained by
differentiating the differential equation.
So, I think that I need to apply what was done in this question alongside Lemma 6.2. I will have to consider what a vector field means in this context. I might be able to make the assumption that a vector field is just a linear operator. We are given that
$dot{x}= f(x)$ is an autonomous system of ODEs- $x(t)=phi(t,x)$
- $Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$
- $L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$
and we need to show that
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
I also see that Roger Howe wrote a good introduction to lie theory in these notes (he goes through one-parameter lie groups on pages $604-606$).
This appears to be an extremely difficult problem for someone unfamiliar with lie theory. I am going to see if I can figure out a more direct approach.
differential-equations lie-groups differential-operators
add a comment |
Consider the $N$-dimensional autonomous system of ODEs
$$dot{x}= f(x),$$
where a locally unique solution $x(t)$, starting from the initial condition $x$, is denoted as $x(t)=phi(t,x)$. Assume that
$$Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
For the system above, assume that $f(x)$ is analytic (that is, its Taylor series converges to $f$ itself). Let the differential operator $L[xi]$ be defined as
$$L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$$
Show that $phi(t,x)$ can be expressed as
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
where $L^n[xi]$ is the shorthand notation for
$$L^n[xi]=underbrace{L[L[cdots{L}[xi]}_{ntext{-times}}cdots]]$$
Potentially related questions:
- How to properly apply the Lie Series
- Exponential of a function times derivative
- How to derive these Lie Series formulas
I'm stuck on how to approach this problem. Here is all the information that I have gathered so far -
Through this question, the one dimensional situation states that $e^{apartial}f(x)=f(a+x)$ (we can think of this as a shift operator).
Inside Ordinary Differential Equations and Dynamical Systems by Teschl, we have the following Lemma (Lemma $6.2$ on page $190$ of the text).
Lemma (Straightening out of vector fields): Suppose $f(x_0)neq0$. Then, there is a local coordinate transform $y=varphi(x)$ such that $dot{x}=f(x)$ is transformed to
$$dot{y}=(1,0,...,0)$$
Teschl list a similar problem on page $191$ (problem $6.5$ for one-parameter lie groups) in which he states that
Hint: The Taylor coefficients are the derivatives which can be obtained by
differentiating the differential equation.
So, I think that I need to apply what was done in this question alongside Lemma 6.2. I will have to consider what a vector field means in this context. I might be able to make the assumption that a vector field is just a linear operator. We are given that
$dot{x}= f(x)$ is an autonomous system of ODEs- $x(t)=phi(t,x)$
- $Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$
- $L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$
and we need to show that
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
I also see that Roger Howe wrote a good introduction to lie theory in these notes (he goes through one-parameter lie groups on pages $604-606$).
This appears to be an extremely difficult problem for someone unfamiliar with lie theory. I am going to see if I can figure out a more direct approach.
differential-equations lie-groups differential-operators
Consider the $N$-dimensional autonomous system of ODEs
$$dot{x}= f(x),$$
where a locally unique solution $x(t)$, starting from the initial condition $x$, is denoted as $x(t)=phi(t,x)$. Assume that
$$Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
For the system above, assume that $f(x)$ is analytic (that is, its Taylor series converges to $f$ itself). Let the differential operator $L[xi]$ be defined as
$$L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$$
Show that $phi(t,x)$ can be expressed as
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
where $L^n[xi]$ is the shorthand notation for
$$L^n[xi]=underbrace{L[L[cdots{L}[xi]}_{ntext{-times}}cdots]]$$
Potentially related questions:
- How to properly apply the Lie Series
- Exponential of a function times derivative
- How to derive these Lie Series formulas
I'm stuck on how to approach this problem. Here is all the information that I have gathered so far -
Through this question, the one dimensional situation states that $e^{apartial}f(x)=f(a+x)$ (we can think of this as a shift operator).
Inside Ordinary Differential Equations and Dynamical Systems by Teschl, we have the following Lemma (Lemma $6.2$ on page $190$ of the text).
Lemma (Straightening out of vector fields): Suppose $f(x_0)neq0$. Then, there is a local coordinate transform $y=varphi(x)$ such that $dot{x}=f(x)$ is transformed to
$$dot{y}=(1,0,...,0)$$
Teschl list a similar problem on page $191$ (problem $6.5$ for one-parameter lie groups) in which he states that
Hint: The Taylor coefficients are the derivatives which can be obtained by
differentiating the differential equation.
So, I think that I need to apply what was done in this question alongside Lemma 6.2. I will have to consider what a vector field means in this context. I might be able to make the assumption that a vector field is just a linear operator. We are given that
$dot{x}= f(x)$ is an autonomous system of ODEs- $x(t)=phi(t,x)$
- $Big(frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)Big)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$
- $L[xi]=f(x)boldsymbol{cdot}nabla{xi}=sum_{n=1}^{N}f_i(x)frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}$
and we need to show that
$$phi(t,x)=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
I also see that Roger Howe wrote a good introduction to lie theory in these notes (he goes through one-parameter lie groups on pages $604-606$).
This appears to be an extremely difficult problem for someone unfamiliar with lie theory. I am going to see if I can figure out a more direct approach.
differential-equations lie-groups differential-operators
differential-equations lie-groups differential-operators
edited 2 days ago
Bernard
118k639112
118k639112
asked 2 days ago
Axion004
279212
279212
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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For any differentiable function $B:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ we know from chain rule and differential equation that
begin{align}
frac{∂}{∂t}B(ϕ(t,x))&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot frac{∂}{∂t}ϕ(t,x)
\
&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))
\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B].
end{align}
So along a solution we get $frac{∂}{∂t}=L_{ϕ(t,x)}$. Now apply this to the translation operator resp. the Taylor expansion
$$
ϕ(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{∂}{∂s}right)ϕ(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{ϕ(s,x)}right)[ϕ(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]Big|_{s=0}
$$
The same remains true if you replace the exponential by the exponential series.
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Here is my interpretation of the first answer.
Suppose we have a differentiable function $xi:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ where $frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)=f(phi(t,x))$. We know by the chain rule that
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot f(phi(t,x))
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))
end{align*}
where $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}$ is the directional derivative of the function $xi$ in the direction of f. This is defined as
$$dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$$
Therefore,
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(x(t)) f_i(x(t))
\&=sum_{i=1}^n f_i(phi(t,x))frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(phi(t,x))
=L_{phi(t,x)}[xi]
end{align*}
So along a solution we get $frac{partial}{partial{t}}=L_{phi(t,x)}$. Next, apply this to the translation operator via the Taylor expansion
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{phi(s,x)}right)[phi(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]
$$
If we then replace the exponential with the exponential series, we have
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]=Big(sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{left(tL_{x}right)^n}{n!}Big)[x]=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
Note: I am trying to justify that
$$phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$$
I don't see how to get to this equality from
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
We have that
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(x)$$
So,
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)=1$$
But, any further manipulation that I can think of does not lead to $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. The derivation must be related to the Taylor series expansion.
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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For any differentiable function $B:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ we know from chain rule and differential equation that
begin{align}
frac{∂}{∂t}B(ϕ(t,x))&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot frac{∂}{∂t}ϕ(t,x)
\
&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))
\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B].
end{align}
So along a solution we get $frac{∂}{∂t}=L_{ϕ(t,x)}$. Now apply this to the translation operator resp. the Taylor expansion
$$
ϕ(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{∂}{∂s}right)ϕ(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{ϕ(s,x)}right)[ϕ(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]Big|_{s=0}
$$
The same remains true if you replace the exponential by the exponential series.
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
add a comment |
For any differentiable function $B:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ we know from chain rule and differential equation that
begin{align}
frac{∂}{∂t}B(ϕ(t,x))&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot frac{∂}{∂t}ϕ(t,x)
\
&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))
\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B].
end{align}
So along a solution we get $frac{∂}{∂t}=L_{ϕ(t,x)}$. Now apply this to the translation operator resp. the Taylor expansion
$$
ϕ(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{∂}{∂s}right)ϕ(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{ϕ(s,x)}right)[ϕ(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]Big|_{s=0}
$$
The same remains true if you replace the exponential by the exponential series.
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
add a comment |
For any differentiable function $B:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ we know from chain rule and differential equation that
begin{align}
frac{∂}{∂t}B(ϕ(t,x))&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot frac{∂}{∂t}ϕ(t,x)
\
&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))
\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B].
end{align}
So along a solution we get $frac{∂}{∂t}=L_{ϕ(t,x)}$. Now apply this to the translation operator resp. the Taylor expansion
$$
ϕ(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{∂}{∂s}right)ϕ(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{ϕ(s,x)}right)[ϕ(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]Big|_{s=0}
$$
The same remains true if you replace the exponential by the exponential series.
For any differentiable function $B:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ we know from chain rule and differential equation that
begin{align}
frac{∂}{∂t}B(ϕ(t,x))&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot frac{∂}{∂t}ϕ(t,x)
\
&=frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))
\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B].
end{align}
So along a solution we get $frac{∂}{∂t}=L_{ϕ(t,x)}$. Now apply this to the translation operator resp. the Taylor expansion
$$
ϕ(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{∂}{∂s}right)ϕ(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{ϕ(s,x)}right)[ϕ(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]Big|_{s=0}
$$
The same remains true if you replace the exponential by the exponential series.
answered 2 days ago
LutzL
56.4k42054
56.4k42054
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
add a comment |
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
I'm having trouble following $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. For the first equality, $frac{∂B}{∂x}(ϕ(t,x))cdot f(ϕ(t,x))=sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))$, you must be taking a partial derivative in every direction (since we are working in $Bbb R^n$). I don't see how one can justify $sum_{i=1}^n frac{∂B}{∂x_i}(ϕ(t,x)) f_i(ϕ(t,x))=L_{ϕ(t,x)}[B]$. This must follow from the definition of the differential operator.
– Axion004
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Simple manipulation of linear Taylor polynomials gives $$B(x(t+h))=B(x(t)+f(x(t))h+O(h^2)=B(x(t))+B'(x(t))f(x(t))h+O(h^2).$$ Inside $B'(x)v$ with $v=f(x)h$ is the directional derivative in direction $v$, $B'(x)v=sum v_ifrac∂{∂x_i}B(x)$. Replacing back $v=f(x)h$ gives exactly the definition of $L$, so that $B(x(t+h))=B(x(t))+L[B](x(t))h+O(h^2)$. There is nothing more to it.
– LutzL
yesterday
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
Perhaps, to avoid using the Taylor series expansion, one could apply the definition of the directional derivative and conclude that $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$.
– Axion004
12 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
I'm guessing that there is a logical reason why $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. I tried reviewing it tonight and couldn't see how this was formed. I coudn't derive this starting from $frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$.
– Axion004
10 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
This is just the simple Taylor expansion $x(t)=sumfrac{x^{(k)}}{k!}t^k=(exp(tD)x)(0)$. $t$ is here a constant, so it looks bad to have the derivative for $t$, thus changing it to $s$.
– LutzL
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Here is my interpretation of the first answer.
Suppose we have a differentiable function $xi:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ where $frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)=f(phi(t,x))$. We know by the chain rule that
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot f(phi(t,x))
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))
end{align*}
where $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}$ is the directional derivative of the function $xi$ in the direction of f. This is defined as
$$dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$$
Therefore,
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(x(t)) f_i(x(t))
\&=sum_{i=1}^n f_i(phi(t,x))frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(phi(t,x))
=L_{phi(t,x)}[xi]
end{align*}
So along a solution we get $frac{partial}{partial{t}}=L_{phi(t,x)}$. Next, apply this to the translation operator via the Taylor expansion
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{phi(s,x)}right)[phi(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]
$$
If we then replace the exponential with the exponential series, we have
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]=Big(sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{left(tL_{x}right)^n}{n!}Big)[x]=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
Note: I am trying to justify that
$$phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$$
I don't see how to get to this equality from
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
We have that
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(x)$$
So,
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)=1$$
But, any further manipulation that I can think of does not lead to $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. The derivation must be related to the Taylor series expansion.
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
add a comment |
Here is my interpretation of the first answer.
Suppose we have a differentiable function $xi:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ where $frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)=f(phi(t,x))$. We know by the chain rule that
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot f(phi(t,x))
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))
end{align*}
where $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}$ is the directional derivative of the function $xi$ in the direction of f. This is defined as
$$dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$$
Therefore,
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(x(t)) f_i(x(t))
\&=sum_{i=1}^n f_i(phi(t,x))frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(phi(t,x))
=L_{phi(t,x)}[xi]
end{align*}
So along a solution we get $frac{partial}{partial{t}}=L_{phi(t,x)}$. Next, apply this to the translation operator via the Taylor expansion
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{phi(s,x)}right)[phi(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]
$$
If we then replace the exponential with the exponential series, we have
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]=Big(sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{left(tL_{x}right)^n}{n!}Big)[x]=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
Note: I am trying to justify that
$$phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$$
I don't see how to get to this equality from
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
We have that
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(x)$$
So,
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)=1$$
But, any further manipulation that I can think of does not lead to $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. The derivation must be related to the Taylor series expansion.
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
add a comment |
Here is my interpretation of the first answer.
Suppose we have a differentiable function $xi:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ where $frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)=f(phi(t,x))$. We know by the chain rule that
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot f(phi(t,x))
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))
end{align*}
where $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}$ is the directional derivative of the function $xi$ in the direction of f. This is defined as
$$dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$$
Therefore,
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(x(t)) f_i(x(t))
\&=sum_{i=1}^n f_i(phi(t,x))frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(phi(t,x))
=L_{phi(t,x)}[xi]
end{align*}
So along a solution we get $frac{partial}{partial{t}}=L_{phi(t,x)}$. Next, apply this to the translation operator via the Taylor expansion
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{phi(s,x)}right)[phi(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]
$$
If we then replace the exponential with the exponential series, we have
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]=Big(sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{left(tL_{x}right)^n}{n!}Big)[x]=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
Note: I am trying to justify that
$$phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$$
I don't see how to get to this equality from
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
We have that
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(x)$$
So,
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)=1$$
But, any further manipulation that I can think of does not lead to $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. The derivation must be related to the Taylor series expansion.
Here is my interpretation of the first answer.
Suppose we have a differentiable function $xi:Bbb R^ntoBbb R^n$ where $frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)=f(phi(t,x))$. We know by the chain rule that
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot frac{partial}{partial{t}}phi(t,x)
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(phi(t,x))cdot f(phi(t,x))
\
&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))
end{align*}
where $dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}$ is the directional derivative of the function $xi$ in the direction of f. This is defined as
$$dfrac{partialxi(x)}{partial{x}}cdot{f(x)}=nabla{xi(x)}boldsymbol{cdot}f(x)=sum_{n=1}^{N}frac{partial{xi}}{partial{x_i}}f_i(x)$$
Therefore,
begin{align*}
frac{partial}{partial{t}}xi(phi(t,x))&=frac{partialxi}{partial{x}}(x(t))cdot f(x(t))\
&=sum_{i=1}^n frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(x(t)) f_i(x(t))
\&=sum_{i=1}^n f_i(phi(t,x))frac{partialxi}{partial{x_i}}(phi(t,x))
=L_{phi(t,x)}[xi]
end{align*}
So along a solution we get $frac{partial}{partial{t}}=L_{phi(t,x)}$. Next, apply this to the translation operator via the Taylor expansion
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{phi(s,x)}right)[phi(s,x)]Big|_{s=0}
=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]
$$
If we then replace the exponential with the exponential series, we have
$$
phi(t,x)=expleft(tL_{x}right)[x]=Big(sum_{n = 0}^{infty} frac{left(tL_{x}right)^n}{n!}Big)[x]=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{t^n}{n!}L^n[x]$$
Note: I am trying to justify that
$$phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$$
I don't see how to get to this equality from
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(phi(t,x))$$
We have that
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)f(x)=f(x)$$
So,
$$frac{partial}{partial{x}}phi(t,x)=1$$
But, any further manipulation that I can think of does not lead to $phi(t,x)=expleft(tfrac{partial}{partial{s}}right)phi(s,x)Big|_{s=0}$. The derivation must be related to the Taylor series expansion.
edited 10 hours ago
answered 15 hours ago
Axion004
279212
279212
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
add a comment |
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
$h$ is a scalar, like $t$. There is no $h_i$.
– LutzL
13 hours ago
add a comment |
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