Given a square matrix A of order n, prove $operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$












9














Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:



$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$



$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:



How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?



But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?










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  • 1




    The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
    – awllower
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:06








  • 1




    @awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:08






  • 1




    @awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:14










  • @julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
    – awllower
    Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
















9














Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:



$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$



$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:



How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?



But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
    – awllower
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:06








  • 1




    @awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:08






  • 1




    @awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:14










  • @julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
    – awllower
    Feb 9 '13 at 13:45














9












9








9


1





Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:



$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$



$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:



How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?



But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?










share|cite|improve this question















Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:



$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$



$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:



How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?



But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?







linear-algebra matrices






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20









Community

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asked Feb 8 '13 at 13:46









User

437311




437311








  • 1




    The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
    – awllower
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:06








  • 1




    @awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:08






  • 1




    @awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:14










  • @julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
    – awllower
    Feb 9 '13 at 13:45














  • 1




    The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
    – awllower
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:06








  • 1




    @awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 8 '13 at 14:08






  • 1




    @awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:14










  • @julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
    – awllower
    Feb 9 '13 at 13:45








1




1




The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06






The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06






1




1




@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08




@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08




1




1




@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14




@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14












@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45




@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3














Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.



Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:13










  • @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:48










  • Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
    – Julien
    Feb 8 '13 at 15:51





















2














Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.



The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.



Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.



Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$






share|cite|improve this answer





























    0














    Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.



    First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:




    • Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible

    • Product of invertible matrices is invertible


    so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.



    Otherwise, use induction to show the following:




    if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.




    Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
    $$
    rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
    $$
    $$
    operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
    $$



    $$
    n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
    $$

    There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3














      Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.



      Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).






      share|cite|improve this answer

















      • 1




        So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:13










      • @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
        – Tobias Kildetoft
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:48










      • Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:51


















      3














      Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.



      Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).






      share|cite|improve this answer

















      • 1




        So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:13










      • @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
        – Tobias Kildetoft
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:48










      • Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
















      3












      3








      3






      Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.



      Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.



      Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Feb 8 '13 at 14:19









      Tobias Kildetoft

      16.7k14273




      16.7k14273








      • 1




        So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:13










      • @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
        – Tobias Kildetoft
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:48










      • Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
















      • 1




        So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:13










      • @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
        – Tobias Kildetoft
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:48










      • Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
        – Julien
        Feb 8 '13 at 15:51










      1




      1




      So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
      – Julien
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:13




      So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
      – Julien
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:13












      @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
      – Tobias Kildetoft
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:48




      @julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
      – Tobias Kildetoft
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:48












      Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
      – Julien
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:51






      Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
      – Julien
      Feb 8 '13 at 15:51













      2














      Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.



      The sequence
      $$
      ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
      $$
      is ascending, and the sequence
      $$
      operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
      $$
      is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
      $$
      ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
      qquad
      operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
      $$
      for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.



      Now Fitting's Lemma states that
      $$
      F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
      $$
      and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.



      Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        2














        Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.



        The sequence
        $$
        ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
        $$
        is ascending, and the sequence
        $$
        operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
        $$
        is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
        $$
        ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
        qquad
        operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
        $$
        for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.



        Now Fitting's Lemma states that
        $$
        F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
        $$
        and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.



        Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          2












          2








          2






          Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.



          The sequence
          $$
          ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
          $$
          is ascending, and the sequence
          $$
          operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
          $$
          is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
          $$
          ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
          qquad
          operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
          $$
          for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.



          Now Fitting's Lemma states that
          $$
          F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
          $$
          and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.



          Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.



          The sequence
          $$
          ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
          $$
          is ascending, and the sequence
          $$
          operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
          $$
          is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
          $$
          ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
          qquad
          operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
          $$
          for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.



          Now Fitting's Lemma states that
          $$
          F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
          $$
          and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.



          Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Feb 8 '13 at 16:02









          Andreas Caranti

          56.1k34295




          56.1k34295























              0














              Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.



              First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:




              • Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible

              • Product of invertible matrices is invertible


              so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.



              Otherwise, use induction to show the following:




              if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.




              Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
              $$
              rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
              $$
              $$
              operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
              $$



              $$
              n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
              $$

              There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                0














                Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.



                First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:




                • Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible

                • Product of invertible matrices is invertible


                so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.



                Otherwise, use induction to show the following:




                if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.




                Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
                $$
                rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
                $$
                $$
                operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
                $$



                $$
                n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
                $$

                There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  0












                  0








                  0






                  Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.



                  First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:




                  • Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible

                  • Product of invertible matrices is invertible


                  so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.



                  Otherwise, use induction to show the following:




                  if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.




                  Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
                  $$
                  rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
                  $$
                  $$
                  operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
                  $$



                  $$
                  n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
                  $$

                  There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.



                  First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:




                  • Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible

                  • Product of invertible matrices is invertible


                  so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.



                  Otherwise, use induction to show the following:




                  if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.




                  Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
                  $$
                  rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
                  $$
                  $$
                  operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
                  $$



                  $$
                  n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
                  $$

                  There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 2 days ago









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