Given a square matrix A of order n, prove $operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$
Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:
$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$
$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:
How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?
But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?
linear-algebra matrices
add a comment |
Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:
$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$
$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:
How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?
But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?
linear-algebra matrices
1
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
1
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
1
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
add a comment |
Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:
$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$
$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:
How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?
But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?
linear-algebra matrices
Given $Ain F^{n times n}$ prove:
$$operatorname{rank}(A^n) = operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1})$$
$operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) leq operatorname{rank}(A^n)$ is easy, just from:
How to prove $text{Rank}(AB)leq min(text{Rank}(A), text{Rank}(B))$?
But how can I prove the other direction? or should I do it otherwise?
linear-algebra matrices
linear-algebra matrices
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:20
Community♦
1
1
asked Feb 8 '13 at 13:46
User
437311
437311
1
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
1
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
1
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
add a comment |
1
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
1
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
1
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
1
1
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
1
1
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
1
1
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.
Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
add a comment |
Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.
The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.
Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.
Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$
add a comment |
Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.
First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:
- Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible
- Product of invertible matrices is invertible
so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.
Otherwise, use induction to show the following:
if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.
Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
$$
rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
$$$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
$$
n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
$$
There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.
Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
add a comment |
Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.
Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
add a comment |
Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.
Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).
Note that we can assume the field is algebraically closed, as the rank of the matrix does not change if we look at it as being over a larger field.
Now the matrix is similar to an upper triangular matrix. We can assume that it has a block form consisting of an upper triangular $mtimes m$ matrix with only non-zero elements on the diagonal, and a block consisting of a strictly upper triangular $(n-m)times (n-m)$ matrix. Now both the $n$'th and the $n+1$'st power of such a matrix will simply consist of some $mtimes m$ upper triangular block with only non-zero elements on the diagonal (as we kill off the strictly upper triangular block when the power is at least $n-m$). This shows that these two powers have the same rank (namely $m$).
answered Feb 8 '13 at 14:19
Tobias Kildetoft
16.7k14273
16.7k14273
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
add a comment |
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
1
1
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
So you proved in particular that the rank of $A^2$ is always equal to the rank of $A$? What do you do with nonzero matrices $A$ such that $A^2=0$?
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:13
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
@julien no, this does not show that the rank of $A$ is the same as the rank of $A^2$ unless $n = 1$ in which case it is trivial.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 15:48
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
Oh boy, what a trick. I had not seen that it was the same $n$. Sorry. And +1.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:51
add a comment |
Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.
The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.
Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.
Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$
add a comment |
Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.
The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.
Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.
Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$
add a comment |
Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.
The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.
Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.
Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$
Using Fitting's Lemma, one can give another version of the fine argument of @Tobias.
The sequence
$$
ker(A) subseteq ker(A^2) subseteq ker(A^3) subseteq dots
$$
is ascending, and the sequence
$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
is descending. Choose the smallest $m$ such that
$$
ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i}),
qquad
operatorname{im}(A^m) = operatorname{im}(A^{m+i})
$$
for all $i ge 0$. Note that if $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+1})$, then $ker(A^m) = ker(A^{m+i})$ for all $i ge 0$. In particular $m le n$.
Now Fitting's Lemma states that
$$
F^n = ker(A^m) oplus operatorname{im}(A^m),
$$
and $A$ is nilpotent on the first summand, and invertible on the second one.
Then for any $k ge m$ (actually, I believe, exactly for these values of $k$) we will have $$operatorname{rank}(A^k) = operatorname{rank}(A^{k+1}).$$
answered Feb 8 '13 at 16:02
Andreas Caranti
56.1k34295
56.1k34295
add a comment |
add a comment |
Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.
First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:
- Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible
- Product of invertible matrices is invertible
so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.
Otherwise, use induction to show the following:
if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.
Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
$$
rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
$$$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
$$
n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
$$
There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.
add a comment |
Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.
First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:
- Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible
- Product of invertible matrices is invertible
so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.
Otherwise, use induction to show the following:
if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.
Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
$$
rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
$$$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
$$
n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
$$
There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.
add a comment |
Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.
First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:
- Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible
- Product of invertible matrices is invertible
so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.
Otherwise, use induction to show the following:
if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.
Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
$$
rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
$$$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
$$
n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
$$
There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.
Coming back to this question after a few years, I've found a simpler proof, using only basic linear algebra knowledge.
First, if $operatorname{rank}(A)=n$, use the facts:
- Matrix is full rank iff it is invertible
- Product of invertible matrices is invertible
so $operatorname{rank}(A^{k})=n$ for any natural $k$.
Otherwise, use induction to show the following:
if $rank(T^k) = rank(T^{k+1})$ for some positive integer $k$, then $rank(T^k) = rank(T^m)$ for all positive integer $m geq k$.
Finally, we have to show that if $n gt operatorname{rank}(A)$, then $rank(A^k) = rank(A^{k+1})$ for some $kle n$.
$$
rank(A^k) = dim(operatorname{im}(A^k))
$$$$
operatorname{im}(A) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^2) supseteq operatorname{im}(A^3) supseteq dots
$$
$$
n gt operatorname{rank}(A) ge operatorname{rank}(A^2) ge operatorname{rank}(A^3) ge dots ge operatorname{rank}(A^n) ge operatorname{rank}(A^{n+1}) ge 0
$$
There are n possible values ($0,dots,n-1$) for n+1 ranks, so there are at least two ranks that are equal.
answered 2 days ago
User
437311
437311
add a comment |
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1
The matrix $A$ must satisfy a polynomial equation of degree $n$(its characteristic polynomial), and hence $A^{n+1}$ is expressible as the sum of some powers of $A$ of lower exponent. Hence the assertion follows.
– awllower
Feb 8 '13 at 14:06
1
@awllower But taking the sum of matrices can reduce the rank.
– Tobias Kildetoft
Feb 8 '13 at 14:08
1
@awllower This only proves the same direction that was already noted by the OP.
– Julien
Feb 8 '13 at 15:14
@julien Thanks for the comments indicating my error.
– awllower
Feb 9 '13 at 13:45