Find all solutions $T$ of $x^{2006} T = 0$ in the space of tempered distributions, $mathcal{S}'(mathbb{R})$












2














I'm modeling my solution after this answer to a similar question. This is as far as I've gotten:



Every $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ that vanishes at $0$ can be expressed as $phi(x) = x psi (x)$. Then, $Tphi = xT(psi) = 0$ by assumption.



Fix $chi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ such that $chi(0) = 1$. Let $Tchi = a$. Then, for any $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$, $$Tphi = T(phi - phi(0) chi + phi(0) chi) = T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi).$$



This is where I've gotten stuf. I'm not sure how, in the linked solution, the answer reduces from $T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi)$ to $0 + a phi(0)$ (my primary confusion is $T(phi - phi(0) chi) = 0$) nor how to adapt that for my own question.



Any suggestions?










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  • 1




    You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 4 at 5:45










  • @LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
    – kkc
    Jan 4 at 5:49










  • You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
    – Vobo
    yesterday


















2














I'm modeling my solution after this answer to a similar question. This is as far as I've gotten:



Every $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ that vanishes at $0$ can be expressed as $phi(x) = x psi (x)$. Then, $Tphi = xT(psi) = 0$ by assumption.



Fix $chi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ such that $chi(0) = 1$. Let $Tchi = a$. Then, for any $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$, $$Tphi = T(phi - phi(0) chi + phi(0) chi) = T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi).$$



This is where I've gotten stuf. I'm not sure how, in the linked solution, the answer reduces from $T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi)$ to $0 + a phi(0)$ (my primary confusion is $T(phi - phi(0) chi) = 0$) nor how to adapt that for my own question.



Any suggestions?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
















  • 1




    You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 4 at 5:45










  • @LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
    – kkc
    Jan 4 at 5:49










  • You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
    – Vobo
    yesterday
















2












2








2







I'm modeling my solution after this answer to a similar question. This is as far as I've gotten:



Every $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ that vanishes at $0$ can be expressed as $phi(x) = x psi (x)$. Then, $Tphi = xT(psi) = 0$ by assumption.



Fix $chi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ such that $chi(0) = 1$. Let $Tchi = a$. Then, for any $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$, $$Tphi = T(phi - phi(0) chi + phi(0) chi) = T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi).$$



This is where I've gotten stuf. I'm not sure how, in the linked solution, the answer reduces from $T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi)$ to $0 + a phi(0)$ (my primary confusion is $T(phi - phi(0) chi) = 0$) nor how to adapt that for my own question.



Any suggestions?










share|cite|improve this question







New contributor




kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











I'm modeling my solution after this answer to a similar question. This is as far as I've gotten:



Every $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ that vanishes at $0$ can be expressed as $phi(x) = x psi (x)$. Then, $Tphi = xT(psi) = 0$ by assumption.



Fix $chi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$ such that $chi(0) = 1$. Let $Tchi = a$. Then, for any $phi in mathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$, $$Tphi = T(phi - phi(0) chi + phi(0) chi) = T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi).$$



This is where I've gotten stuf. I'm not sure how, in the linked solution, the answer reduces from $T(phi - phi(0) chi) + T(phi(0) chi)$ to $0 + a phi(0)$ (my primary confusion is $T(phi - phi(0) chi) = 0$) nor how to adapt that for my own question.



Any suggestions?







functional-analysis distribution-theory schwartz-space






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kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question







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kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question






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asked Jan 4 at 5:41









kkckkc

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1308




New contributor




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New contributor





kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






kkc is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.








  • 1




    You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 4 at 5:45










  • @LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
    – kkc
    Jan 4 at 5:49










  • You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
    – Vobo
    yesterday
















  • 1




    You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 4 at 5:45










  • @LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
    – kkc
    Jan 4 at 5:49










  • You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
    – Vobo
    yesterday










1




1




You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 4 at 5:45




You know that the distributions with $xT=0$ are the multiples of the Dirac delta distribution?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 4 at 5:45












@LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
– kkc
Jan 4 at 5:49




@LordSharktheUnknown I don't know that. Could you explain further or refer me to the appropriate resource? I'm fairly new to distributions
– kkc
Jan 4 at 5:49












You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
– Vobo
yesterday






You have $[phi-phi(0)chi](0) = 0 $ obviously, and $phi-phi(0)chiinmathcal{S}(mathbb{R})$. So by the first argument $T(phi-phi(0)chi)=0$.
– Vobo
yesterday












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