Nonarchimedean convergent power series












3












$begingroup$


I would like to understand the second paragraph on the second page (marked page 320) of the article http://www.numdam.org/article/MSMF_1974__39-40__319_0.pdf on rigid analytic geometry by Michel Raynaud.



Let's take $K$ a complete nonarchimedean field and $R$ its valuation ring, and $a in R$ a non-zero element of the unique maximal ideal of $R$ . Let $D:={z in K colon vert z vert leq 1}$ the closed unit disk. We can decompose $D$ into the smaller disk $D':={z in K colon vert z vert leq vert a vert }$ and the annulus $C:={z in K colon vert a vert leq vert z vert leq 1 }$.




Then, the mentioned paragraph says that a power series converging on $D$ is the same as a pair consisting of a power series converging on $D'$ and a Laurent series converging on $C$ such that these two series agree on $C cap D'$.




Now, I am aware that this follows from the Tate acyclicity theorem, but the article says it is immediate, so I would like to see how it is immediate.
I am also aware how the corresponding fact is true in complex analysis, but that doesn't seem to help because in the rigid nonarchimedean setting we don't have a notion of differentiability.



So we know that the Laurent series is a power series on the circle $C cap D'$. Is there an identity-theorem-type of argument to conclude that the Laurent series is a power series on the whole annulus $C$? Or is it even simpler to conclude?



EDIT: For Lubin's proof below to go through, we need to



1) have our functions take values in the algebraic closure $overline{K}$ of $K$ (i.e. $D={z in overline {K} colon vert z vert leq 1}$), OR



2) impose the extra condition that $K$ has an infinite residue field.



I too prefer the first option, because the second is rather exclusive since it excludes local fields.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 11 at 3:38










  • $begingroup$
    My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 11 at 23:12










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 2:49












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 9:43
















3












$begingroup$


I would like to understand the second paragraph on the second page (marked page 320) of the article http://www.numdam.org/article/MSMF_1974__39-40__319_0.pdf on rigid analytic geometry by Michel Raynaud.



Let's take $K$ a complete nonarchimedean field and $R$ its valuation ring, and $a in R$ a non-zero element of the unique maximal ideal of $R$ . Let $D:={z in K colon vert z vert leq 1}$ the closed unit disk. We can decompose $D$ into the smaller disk $D':={z in K colon vert z vert leq vert a vert }$ and the annulus $C:={z in K colon vert a vert leq vert z vert leq 1 }$.




Then, the mentioned paragraph says that a power series converging on $D$ is the same as a pair consisting of a power series converging on $D'$ and a Laurent series converging on $C$ such that these two series agree on $C cap D'$.




Now, I am aware that this follows from the Tate acyclicity theorem, but the article says it is immediate, so I would like to see how it is immediate.
I am also aware how the corresponding fact is true in complex analysis, but that doesn't seem to help because in the rigid nonarchimedean setting we don't have a notion of differentiability.



So we know that the Laurent series is a power series on the circle $C cap D'$. Is there an identity-theorem-type of argument to conclude that the Laurent series is a power series on the whole annulus $C$? Or is it even simpler to conclude?



EDIT: For Lubin's proof below to go through, we need to



1) have our functions take values in the algebraic closure $overline{K}$ of $K$ (i.e. $D={z in overline {K} colon vert z vert leq 1}$), OR



2) impose the extra condition that $K$ has an infinite residue field.



I too prefer the first option, because the second is rather exclusive since it excludes local fields.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 11 at 3:38










  • $begingroup$
    My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 11 at 23:12










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 2:49












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 9:43














3












3








3





$begingroup$


I would like to understand the second paragraph on the second page (marked page 320) of the article http://www.numdam.org/article/MSMF_1974__39-40__319_0.pdf on rigid analytic geometry by Michel Raynaud.



Let's take $K$ a complete nonarchimedean field and $R$ its valuation ring, and $a in R$ a non-zero element of the unique maximal ideal of $R$ . Let $D:={z in K colon vert z vert leq 1}$ the closed unit disk. We can decompose $D$ into the smaller disk $D':={z in K colon vert z vert leq vert a vert }$ and the annulus $C:={z in K colon vert a vert leq vert z vert leq 1 }$.




Then, the mentioned paragraph says that a power series converging on $D$ is the same as a pair consisting of a power series converging on $D'$ and a Laurent series converging on $C$ such that these two series agree on $C cap D'$.




Now, I am aware that this follows from the Tate acyclicity theorem, but the article says it is immediate, so I would like to see how it is immediate.
I am also aware how the corresponding fact is true in complex analysis, but that doesn't seem to help because in the rigid nonarchimedean setting we don't have a notion of differentiability.



So we know that the Laurent series is a power series on the circle $C cap D'$. Is there an identity-theorem-type of argument to conclude that the Laurent series is a power series on the whole annulus $C$? Or is it even simpler to conclude?



EDIT: For Lubin's proof below to go through, we need to



1) have our functions take values in the algebraic closure $overline{K}$ of $K$ (i.e. $D={z in overline {K} colon vert z vert leq 1}$), OR



2) impose the extra condition that $K$ has an infinite residue field.



I too prefer the first option, because the second is rather exclusive since it excludes local fields.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I would like to understand the second paragraph on the second page (marked page 320) of the article http://www.numdam.org/article/MSMF_1974__39-40__319_0.pdf on rigid analytic geometry by Michel Raynaud.



Let's take $K$ a complete nonarchimedean field and $R$ its valuation ring, and $a in R$ a non-zero element of the unique maximal ideal of $R$ . Let $D:={z in K colon vert z vert leq 1}$ the closed unit disk. We can decompose $D$ into the smaller disk $D':={z in K colon vert z vert leq vert a vert }$ and the annulus $C:={z in K colon vert a vert leq vert z vert leq 1 }$.




Then, the mentioned paragraph says that a power series converging on $D$ is the same as a pair consisting of a power series converging on $D'$ and a Laurent series converging on $C$ such that these two series agree on $C cap D'$.




Now, I am aware that this follows from the Tate acyclicity theorem, but the article says it is immediate, so I would like to see how it is immediate.
I am also aware how the corresponding fact is true in complex analysis, but that doesn't seem to help because in the rigid nonarchimedean setting we don't have a notion of differentiability.



So we know that the Laurent series is a power series on the circle $C cap D'$. Is there an identity-theorem-type of argument to conclude that the Laurent series is a power series on the whole annulus $C$? Or is it even simpler to conclude?



EDIT: For Lubin's proof below to go through, we need to



1) have our functions take values in the algebraic closure $overline{K}$ of $K$ (i.e. $D={z in overline {K} colon vert z vert leq 1}$), OR



2) impose the extra condition that $K$ has an infinite residue field.



I too prefer the first option, because the second is rather exclusive since it excludes local fields.







abstract-algebra power-series algebraic-number-theory analytic-geometry rigid-analytic-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 15 at 16:26







Layer Cake

















asked Jan 8 at 11:33









Layer CakeLayer Cake

253110




253110












  • $begingroup$
    In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 11 at 3:38










  • $begingroup$
    My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 11 at 23:12










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 2:49












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 9:43


















  • $begingroup$
    In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 11 at 3:38










  • $begingroup$
    My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 11 at 23:12










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 2:49












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 9:43
















$begingroup$
In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 11 at 3:38




$begingroup$
In what sense do we not have a notion of differentiability here?
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 11 at 3:38












$begingroup$
My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 11 at 23:12




$begingroup$
My bad, we certainly do! I meant to say that we don’t have a rewarding notion, because there is no link between differentiable and analytic functions here.
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 11 at 23:12












$begingroup$
Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 12 at 2:49






$begingroup$
Ah, of course. So the good notion is analyticity, rather than differentiability; and all proofs should depend on the former, without mention of the latter, I suppose. Let me think about this. I might be able to hack up an ugly proof for you.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 12 at 2:49














$begingroup$
Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 9:43




$begingroup$
Thank you for taking the time to think about it, I appreciate it.
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 9:43










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

To clarify our ideas, let’s see what the Laurent series look like that are convergent on ${z:|z|=1}$ — the skin, so to speak, of the closed unit disk. These are the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$ . That is, we need $|c_n|to0$ for positive $n$ and negative $n$.



A worthwhile example is $sum_{nge0}p^n(x^{-n^2}+x^{n^2})$. Draw the Newton picture and you see what’s going on: the points you draw are all $(pm n^2,n)$. This is a series convergent only on the skin.



It’s the same thing for series about which you nothing more than that they are convergent on the skin of $D'$, namely the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}frac{c_n}{a^n}x^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$; or if you like, the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}gamma_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|a^ngamma_n|=0$.



But the series we’re concerned with are power series, that is, of form $sum_0^inftygamma_nx^n$; and since the series is convergent on the outer skin of $C$, even at $z=1$, so the coefficients $gamma_n$ must have $|gamma_n|to0$. This is just the condition that our series converges on $D$.



EDIT:

Let’s see whether I can give a satisfactory answer to your very valid objection. It depends on making a careful distinction between a series $G(x)$ and the $p$-adic function $g$ defined by $G$.



While we’re at it, I want to change the coordinatization, sending a point $z$ to $z/a$, so that now our old set $D'$ is the closed unit disk $D$, and the original $D$ becomes what I’ll call $D^+$, namely ${z:|z|le|1/a|}$. Then the original $C$ becomes ${z:1le|z|le|1/a|}$. Our intersection-set is just the units $U$ of $K$, considered as an analytic space. All this just to make the typing easier for me.



Our four rings of power series now are $S^{[0,1]}{sum_0^infty c_nx^n: c_nto0}$ for $D$, $S^{[0,1/|a|]}={sum_0^infty c_nx^n:c_n/a^nto0}$ for $D^+$, $S^{[1,1/|a|]}={sum_{-infty,infty}c_nx^n:lim_{nto-infty}c_n=0text{ and }lim_{ntoinfty}c_n/a^n=0}$ for our new annulus $C$, and $S^{{1}}={sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n:lim_{|n|toinfty}c_n=0}$ for $U$.



My first task is to show that a nonzero series $G(x)in S^{{1}}$, which you recall may be evaluated at any $zin U$, to give a numerical value, must define a function which is not identically zero on $U$.



Well, without loss of generality, we may assume that all coefficients of $G$ are in $R$, and indeed some of them are in $R^times$, the unit group of $R$. But only finitely many of them! Now, by multiplying by a monomial, we may assume that $G(x)$ reduces to the nonzero $Gamma(x)in(R/mathfrak m)[x]$, for $mathfrak m$ the maximal ideal of $R$, and even, if you like, that $Gamma$ is monic. But even over an algebraically closed field containing $R/mathfrak m$, $Gamma$ has at most finitely many roots. Thus, we may find $xi$ in either $R/mathfrak m$ or an algebraic closure for which $Gamma(xi)ne0$, and when we lift $xi$ to $z_0$ in $R$ or a finite unramified extension, if necessary, we find that $G(z_0)ne0$, so that the function $g$ defined on $U$ by the series $G$ is not identically zero.



That was the hard part, if any such there was. (I’m sure you can see the rest of the argument.) We now consider an analytic function $f$ on $D$, given by $F(x)in S^{[0,1]}$ and analytic function $h$ on our annulus $C$, given by $H(x)in S^{[1,1/|a|]}$, such that $f$ and $h$ agree on $U$. But we have set-theoretic inclusions of $S^{[0,1]}$ and $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$ into $S{{1}}$ and since $f$ and $h$ agree on the set $U$, their difference (an element of $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$) is identically zero on $U$, so that $G$ and $H$ are equal, coefficient by coefficient.



I believe that the earlier argument I tried to give now applies, to yield our result.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:19










  • $begingroup$
    Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:21










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 18:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 13 at 4:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 14 at 16:30











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1 Answer
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$begingroup$

To clarify our ideas, let’s see what the Laurent series look like that are convergent on ${z:|z|=1}$ — the skin, so to speak, of the closed unit disk. These are the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$ . That is, we need $|c_n|to0$ for positive $n$ and negative $n$.



A worthwhile example is $sum_{nge0}p^n(x^{-n^2}+x^{n^2})$. Draw the Newton picture and you see what’s going on: the points you draw are all $(pm n^2,n)$. This is a series convergent only on the skin.



It’s the same thing for series about which you nothing more than that they are convergent on the skin of $D'$, namely the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}frac{c_n}{a^n}x^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$; or if you like, the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}gamma_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|a^ngamma_n|=0$.



But the series we’re concerned with are power series, that is, of form $sum_0^inftygamma_nx^n$; and since the series is convergent on the outer skin of $C$, even at $z=1$, so the coefficients $gamma_n$ must have $|gamma_n|to0$. This is just the condition that our series converges on $D$.



EDIT:

Let’s see whether I can give a satisfactory answer to your very valid objection. It depends on making a careful distinction between a series $G(x)$ and the $p$-adic function $g$ defined by $G$.



While we’re at it, I want to change the coordinatization, sending a point $z$ to $z/a$, so that now our old set $D'$ is the closed unit disk $D$, and the original $D$ becomes what I’ll call $D^+$, namely ${z:|z|le|1/a|}$. Then the original $C$ becomes ${z:1le|z|le|1/a|}$. Our intersection-set is just the units $U$ of $K$, considered as an analytic space. All this just to make the typing easier for me.



Our four rings of power series now are $S^{[0,1]}{sum_0^infty c_nx^n: c_nto0}$ for $D$, $S^{[0,1/|a|]}={sum_0^infty c_nx^n:c_n/a^nto0}$ for $D^+$, $S^{[1,1/|a|]}={sum_{-infty,infty}c_nx^n:lim_{nto-infty}c_n=0text{ and }lim_{ntoinfty}c_n/a^n=0}$ for our new annulus $C$, and $S^{{1}}={sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n:lim_{|n|toinfty}c_n=0}$ for $U$.



My first task is to show that a nonzero series $G(x)in S^{{1}}$, which you recall may be evaluated at any $zin U$, to give a numerical value, must define a function which is not identically zero on $U$.



Well, without loss of generality, we may assume that all coefficients of $G$ are in $R$, and indeed some of them are in $R^times$, the unit group of $R$. But only finitely many of them! Now, by multiplying by a monomial, we may assume that $G(x)$ reduces to the nonzero $Gamma(x)in(R/mathfrak m)[x]$, for $mathfrak m$ the maximal ideal of $R$, and even, if you like, that $Gamma$ is monic. But even over an algebraically closed field containing $R/mathfrak m$, $Gamma$ has at most finitely many roots. Thus, we may find $xi$ in either $R/mathfrak m$ or an algebraic closure for which $Gamma(xi)ne0$, and when we lift $xi$ to $z_0$ in $R$ or a finite unramified extension, if necessary, we find that $G(z_0)ne0$, so that the function $g$ defined on $U$ by the series $G$ is not identically zero.



That was the hard part, if any such there was. (I’m sure you can see the rest of the argument.) We now consider an analytic function $f$ on $D$, given by $F(x)in S^{[0,1]}$ and analytic function $h$ on our annulus $C$, given by $H(x)in S^{[1,1/|a|]}$, such that $f$ and $h$ agree on $U$. But we have set-theoretic inclusions of $S^{[0,1]}$ and $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$ into $S{{1}}$ and since $f$ and $h$ agree on the set $U$, their difference (an element of $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$) is identically zero on $U$, so that $G$ and $H$ are equal, coefficient by coefficient.



I believe that the earlier argument I tried to give now applies, to yield our result.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:19










  • $begingroup$
    Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:21










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 18:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 13 at 4:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 14 at 16:30
















2












$begingroup$

To clarify our ideas, let’s see what the Laurent series look like that are convergent on ${z:|z|=1}$ — the skin, so to speak, of the closed unit disk. These are the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$ . That is, we need $|c_n|to0$ for positive $n$ and negative $n$.



A worthwhile example is $sum_{nge0}p^n(x^{-n^2}+x^{n^2})$. Draw the Newton picture and you see what’s going on: the points you draw are all $(pm n^2,n)$. This is a series convergent only on the skin.



It’s the same thing for series about which you nothing more than that they are convergent on the skin of $D'$, namely the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}frac{c_n}{a^n}x^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$; or if you like, the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}gamma_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|a^ngamma_n|=0$.



But the series we’re concerned with are power series, that is, of form $sum_0^inftygamma_nx^n$; and since the series is convergent on the outer skin of $C$, even at $z=1$, so the coefficients $gamma_n$ must have $|gamma_n|to0$. This is just the condition that our series converges on $D$.



EDIT:

Let’s see whether I can give a satisfactory answer to your very valid objection. It depends on making a careful distinction between a series $G(x)$ and the $p$-adic function $g$ defined by $G$.



While we’re at it, I want to change the coordinatization, sending a point $z$ to $z/a$, so that now our old set $D'$ is the closed unit disk $D$, and the original $D$ becomes what I’ll call $D^+$, namely ${z:|z|le|1/a|}$. Then the original $C$ becomes ${z:1le|z|le|1/a|}$. Our intersection-set is just the units $U$ of $K$, considered as an analytic space. All this just to make the typing easier for me.



Our four rings of power series now are $S^{[0,1]}{sum_0^infty c_nx^n: c_nto0}$ for $D$, $S^{[0,1/|a|]}={sum_0^infty c_nx^n:c_n/a^nto0}$ for $D^+$, $S^{[1,1/|a|]}={sum_{-infty,infty}c_nx^n:lim_{nto-infty}c_n=0text{ and }lim_{ntoinfty}c_n/a^n=0}$ for our new annulus $C$, and $S^{{1}}={sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n:lim_{|n|toinfty}c_n=0}$ for $U$.



My first task is to show that a nonzero series $G(x)in S^{{1}}$, which you recall may be evaluated at any $zin U$, to give a numerical value, must define a function which is not identically zero on $U$.



Well, without loss of generality, we may assume that all coefficients of $G$ are in $R$, and indeed some of them are in $R^times$, the unit group of $R$. But only finitely many of them! Now, by multiplying by a monomial, we may assume that $G(x)$ reduces to the nonzero $Gamma(x)in(R/mathfrak m)[x]$, for $mathfrak m$ the maximal ideal of $R$, and even, if you like, that $Gamma$ is monic. But even over an algebraically closed field containing $R/mathfrak m$, $Gamma$ has at most finitely many roots. Thus, we may find $xi$ in either $R/mathfrak m$ or an algebraic closure for which $Gamma(xi)ne0$, and when we lift $xi$ to $z_0$ in $R$ or a finite unramified extension, if necessary, we find that $G(z_0)ne0$, so that the function $g$ defined on $U$ by the series $G$ is not identically zero.



That was the hard part, if any such there was. (I’m sure you can see the rest of the argument.) We now consider an analytic function $f$ on $D$, given by $F(x)in S^{[0,1]}$ and analytic function $h$ on our annulus $C$, given by $H(x)in S^{[1,1/|a|]}$, such that $f$ and $h$ agree on $U$. But we have set-theoretic inclusions of $S^{[0,1]}$ and $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$ into $S{{1}}$ and since $f$ and $h$ agree on the set $U$, their difference (an element of $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$) is identically zero on $U$, so that $G$ and $H$ are equal, coefficient by coefficient.



I believe that the earlier argument I tried to give now applies, to yield our result.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:19










  • $begingroup$
    Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:21










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 18:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 13 at 4:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 14 at 16:30














2












2








2





$begingroup$

To clarify our ideas, let’s see what the Laurent series look like that are convergent on ${z:|z|=1}$ — the skin, so to speak, of the closed unit disk. These are the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$ . That is, we need $|c_n|to0$ for positive $n$ and negative $n$.



A worthwhile example is $sum_{nge0}p^n(x^{-n^2}+x^{n^2})$. Draw the Newton picture and you see what’s going on: the points you draw are all $(pm n^2,n)$. This is a series convergent only on the skin.



It’s the same thing for series about which you nothing more than that they are convergent on the skin of $D'$, namely the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}frac{c_n}{a^n}x^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$; or if you like, the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}gamma_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|a^ngamma_n|=0$.



But the series we’re concerned with are power series, that is, of form $sum_0^inftygamma_nx^n$; and since the series is convergent on the outer skin of $C$, even at $z=1$, so the coefficients $gamma_n$ must have $|gamma_n|to0$. This is just the condition that our series converges on $D$.



EDIT:

Let’s see whether I can give a satisfactory answer to your very valid objection. It depends on making a careful distinction between a series $G(x)$ and the $p$-adic function $g$ defined by $G$.



While we’re at it, I want to change the coordinatization, sending a point $z$ to $z/a$, so that now our old set $D'$ is the closed unit disk $D$, and the original $D$ becomes what I’ll call $D^+$, namely ${z:|z|le|1/a|}$. Then the original $C$ becomes ${z:1le|z|le|1/a|}$. Our intersection-set is just the units $U$ of $K$, considered as an analytic space. All this just to make the typing easier for me.



Our four rings of power series now are $S^{[0,1]}{sum_0^infty c_nx^n: c_nto0}$ for $D$, $S^{[0,1/|a|]}={sum_0^infty c_nx^n:c_n/a^nto0}$ for $D^+$, $S^{[1,1/|a|]}={sum_{-infty,infty}c_nx^n:lim_{nto-infty}c_n=0text{ and }lim_{ntoinfty}c_n/a^n=0}$ for our new annulus $C$, and $S^{{1}}={sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n:lim_{|n|toinfty}c_n=0}$ for $U$.



My first task is to show that a nonzero series $G(x)in S^{{1}}$, which you recall may be evaluated at any $zin U$, to give a numerical value, must define a function which is not identically zero on $U$.



Well, without loss of generality, we may assume that all coefficients of $G$ are in $R$, and indeed some of them are in $R^times$, the unit group of $R$. But only finitely many of them! Now, by multiplying by a monomial, we may assume that $G(x)$ reduces to the nonzero $Gamma(x)in(R/mathfrak m)[x]$, for $mathfrak m$ the maximal ideal of $R$, and even, if you like, that $Gamma$ is monic. But even over an algebraically closed field containing $R/mathfrak m$, $Gamma$ has at most finitely many roots. Thus, we may find $xi$ in either $R/mathfrak m$ or an algebraic closure for which $Gamma(xi)ne0$, and when we lift $xi$ to $z_0$ in $R$ or a finite unramified extension, if necessary, we find that $G(z_0)ne0$, so that the function $g$ defined on $U$ by the series $G$ is not identically zero.



That was the hard part, if any such there was. (I’m sure you can see the rest of the argument.) We now consider an analytic function $f$ on $D$, given by $F(x)in S^{[0,1]}$ and analytic function $h$ on our annulus $C$, given by $H(x)in S^{[1,1/|a|]}$, such that $f$ and $h$ agree on $U$. But we have set-theoretic inclusions of $S^{[0,1]}$ and $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$ into $S{{1}}$ and since $f$ and $h$ agree on the set $U$, their difference (an element of $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$) is identically zero on $U$, so that $G$ and $H$ are equal, coefficient by coefficient.



I believe that the earlier argument I tried to give now applies, to yield our result.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



To clarify our ideas, let’s see what the Laurent series look like that are convergent on ${z:|z|=1}$ — the skin, so to speak, of the closed unit disk. These are the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$ . That is, we need $|c_n|to0$ for positive $n$ and negative $n$.



A worthwhile example is $sum_{nge0}p^n(x^{-n^2}+x^{n^2})$. Draw the Newton picture and you see what’s going on: the points you draw are all $(pm n^2,n)$. This is a series convergent only on the skin.



It’s the same thing for series about which you nothing more than that they are convergent on the skin of $D'$, namely the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}frac{c_n}{a^n}x^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|c_n|=0$; or if you like, the series $sum_{-infty<n<infty}gamma_nx^n$ for which $lim_{|n|toinfty}|a^ngamma_n|=0$.



But the series we’re concerned with are power series, that is, of form $sum_0^inftygamma_nx^n$; and since the series is convergent on the outer skin of $C$, even at $z=1$, so the coefficients $gamma_n$ must have $|gamma_n|to0$. This is just the condition that our series converges on $D$.



EDIT:

Let’s see whether I can give a satisfactory answer to your very valid objection. It depends on making a careful distinction between a series $G(x)$ and the $p$-adic function $g$ defined by $G$.



While we’re at it, I want to change the coordinatization, sending a point $z$ to $z/a$, so that now our old set $D'$ is the closed unit disk $D$, and the original $D$ becomes what I’ll call $D^+$, namely ${z:|z|le|1/a|}$. Then the original $C$ becomes ${z:1le|z|le|1/a|}$. Our intersection-set is just the units $U$ of $K$, considered as an analytic space. All this just to make the typing easier for me.



Our four rings of power series now are $S^{[0,1]}{sum_0^infty c_nx^n: c_nto0}$ for $D$, $S^{[0,1/|a|]}={sum_0^infty c_nx^n:c_n/a^nto0}$ for $D^+$, $S^{[1,1/|a|]}={sum_{-infty,infty}c_nx^n:lim_{nto-infty}c_n=0text{ and }lim_{ntoinfty}c_n/a^n=0}$ for our new annulus $C$, and $S^{{1}}={sum_{-infty<n<infty}c_nx^n:lim_{|n|toinfty}c_n=0}$ for $U$.



My first task is to show that a nonzero series $G(x)in S^{{1}}$, which you recall may be evaluated at any $zin U$, to give a numerical value, must define a function which is not identically zero on $U$.



Well, without loss of generality, we may assume that all coefficients of $G$ are in $R$, and indeed some of them are in $R^times$, the unit group of $R$. But only finitely many of them! Now, by multiplying by a monomial, we may assume that $G(x)$ reduces to the nonzero $Gamma(x)in(R/mathfrak m)[x]$, for $mathfrak m$ the maximal ideal of $R$, and even, if you like, that $Gamma$ is monic. But even over an algebraically closed field containing $R/mathfrak m$, $Gamma$ has at most finitely many roots. Thus, we may find $xi$ in either $R/mathfrak m$ or an algebraic closure for which $Gamma(xi)ne0$, and when we lift $xi$ to $z_0$ in $R$ or a finite unramified extension, if necessary, we find that $G(z_0)ne0$, so that the function $g$ defined on $U$ by the series $G$ is not identically zero.



That was the hard part, if any such there was. (I’m sure you can see the rest of the argument.) We now consider an analytic function $f$ on $D$, given by $F(x)in S^{[0,1]}$ and analytic function $h$ on our annulus $C$, given by $H(x)in S^{[1,1/|a|]}$, such that $f$ and $h$ agree on $U$. But we have set-theoretic inclusions of $S^{[0,1]}$ and $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$ into $S{{1}}$ and since $f$ and $h$ agree on the set $U$, their difference (an element of $S^{[1,1/|a|]}$) is identically zero on $U$, so that $G$ and $H$ are equal, coefficient by coefficient.



I believe that the earlier argument I tried to give now applies, to yield our result.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 13 at 19:07

























answered Jan 12 at 14:00









LubinLubin

44.1k44585




44.1k44585












  • $begingroup$
    I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:19










  • $begingroup$
    Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:21










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 18:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 13 at 4:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 14 at 16:30


















  • $begingroup$
    I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:19










  • $begingroup$
    Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
    $endgroup$
    – Layer Cake
    Jan 12 at 16:21










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 12 at 18:56






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 13 at 4:49






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
    $endgroup$
    – Lubin
    Jan 14 at 16:30
















$begingroup$
I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 16:19




$begingroup$
I understand what you wrote, but I am not sure whether it fully answers my question, let me state it more precisely: Let $fcolon D' to K$ be a an analytic function (i.e. given by a power series $F$ converging on $D'$) and $gcolon C to K$ a function given by a Laurent series $G$ converging on $C$, and suppose that $f$ and $g$ agree on $C cap D'$. Obviously, we can define a function $h colon D to K$ by setting $h$ to be $f$ on $D'$ and $g$ on $C$. We now want to show that $h$ is given by a power series $H$ converging on $D$. Continued in my next comment...
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 16:19












$begingroup$
Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 16:21




$begingroup$
Now, you've shown that, if we know that the Laurent series $G$ is in fact a power series, we can use the fact that $G$ converges on the outer skin of $C$ to deduce that $G$ converges on $D$. So if we know that $G=F$ (as formal series), then we are done, we can set $H:=G$. But, we only know that $F(z)=G(z)$ for all $z in C cap D'$. Can we deduce $F=G$ from that?
$endgroup$
– Layer Cake
Jan 12 at 16:21












$begingroup$
Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 12 at 18:56




$begingroup$
Yes, I confess that issues of this kind tend to confuse me. I guess in this case, we need to know that restriction of analytic functions from $D'$ to the skin of $D'$ is an injection. Let me think further.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 12 at 18:56




1




1




$begingroup$
I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 13 at 4:49




$begingroup$
I think I have it. But it’s late, and I’m fighting a cold. May have it for you by tomorrow afternoon.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 13 at 4:49




1




1




$begingroup$
On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 14 at 16:30




$begingroup$
On the other hand, because of the applications I have in mind, I like to take my functions to be defined over a finite extension of $Bbb Q_p$ but to allow the coordinates of the points to be in $Bbb Q_p^{text{ac}}$. (you don’t need to pass to the completion of the algebraic closure in this case). You really do need to have a clear idea of what the underlying set is, and its topology, while you’re thinking about these things.
$endgroup$
– Lubin
Jan 14 at 16:30


















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