Is a spectrum with trivial homology groups trivial?
If $X$ is a spectrum with trivial (integer-valued) homology groups, does it have to be weakly-equivalent to a point?
This is easy to prove for connective spectrum, as a Hurewitz-type argument is then possible, but what about the general case?
Furthermore, if this is not the case, how should I think of the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$ (Bousfield-localization at the spectrum EM spectrum $Hmathbb{Z}$)?
at.algebraic-topology stable-homotopy bousfield-localization
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If $X$ is a spectrum with trivial (integer-valued) homology groups, does it have to be weakly-equivalent to a point?
This is easy to prove for connective spectrum, as a Hurewitz-type argument is then possible, but what about the general case?
Furthermore, if this is not the case, how should I think of the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$ (Bousfield-localization at the spectrum EM spectrum $Hmathbb{Z}$)?
at.algebraic-topology stable-homotopy bousfield-localization
add a comment |
If $X$ is a spectrum with trivial (integer-valued) homology groups, does it have to be weakly-equivalent to a point?
This is easy to prove for connective spectrum, as a Hurewitz-type argument is then possible, but what about the general case?
Furthermore, if this is not the case, how should I think of the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$ (Bousfield-localization at the spectrum EM spectrum $Hmathbb{Z}$)?
at.algebraic-topology stable-homotopy bousfield-localization
If $X$ is a spectrum with trivial (integer-valued) homology groups, does it have to be weakly-equivalent to a point?
This is easy to prove for connective spectrum, as a Hurewitz-type argument is then possible, but what about the general case?
Furthermore, if this is not the case, how should I think of the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$ (Bousfield-localization at the spectrum EM spectrum $Hmathbb{Z}$)?
at.algebraic-topology stable-homotopy bousfield-localization
at.algebraic-topology stable-homotopy bousfield-localization
edited yesterday
YCor
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If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $Hmathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)neq0$.
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That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
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If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $Hmathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)neq0$.
New contributor
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
add a comment |
If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $Hmathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)neq0$.
New contributor
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
add a comment |
If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $Hmathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)neq0$.
New contributor
If $K(n)$ is the $n$-th Morava K-theory for $n>0$, then $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}=0$ because, via the 2 complex orientations of $K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z}$, there are two formal groups over the ring $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})$ and an isomorphism between them. But one has height 0 (additive formal group from $Hmathbb{Z}$) and the other has height $n>0$ (coming from $K(n)$). This is impossible unless $pi_*(K(n)otimes Hmathbb{Z})=0$. But of course $K(n)neq0$.
New contributor
New contributor
answered yesterday
Christian Carrick
1812
1812
New contributor
New contributor
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
add a comment |
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
That's what I thought, thanks for the answer. Can you say something about the functor $L_{Hmathbb{Z}}$?
– user09127
yesterday
add a comment |
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