are linear functionals on C[0, 1] bounded and thus continuous
I'm currently on a theorem showing a general representation of linear functionals on the space of continuous functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
My problem is on the beginning of the proof.
First we define a linear functional $f(x)$ on the space $C[0,1]$.
After that using the Cantor theorem we show that every continuous function on a compact interval is actually bounded and thus $C[0,1]$ is a subspace of $M[0,1]$ - bounded functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
Using the Hahn-Banach theorem we show that our functional $f$ can be extended to a functional $F$ on the whole space $M[0, 1]$ with the same norm.
Maybe I've missed something foundamental, but how do we know that the functional $f$ is bounded, so that it has a norm and it's norm is the same with the extension $F$?
Thanks in advance!
functional-analysis hahn-banach-theorem
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I'm currently on a theorem showing a general representation of linear functionals on the space of continuous functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
My problem is on the beginning of the proof.
First we define a linear functional $f(x)$ on the space $C[0,1]$.
After that using the Cantor theorem we show that every continuous function on a compact interval is actually bounded and thus $C[0,1]$ is a subspace of $M[0,1]$ - bounded functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
Using the Hahn-Banach theorem we show that our functional $f$ can be extended to a functional $F$ on the whole space $M[0, 1]$ with the same norm.
Maybe I've missed something foundamental, but how do we know that the functional $f$ is bounded, so that it has a norm and it's norm is the same with the extension $F$?
Thanks in advance!
functional-analysis hahn-banach-theorem
add a comment |
I'm currently on a theorem showing a general representation of linear functionals on the space of continuous functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
My problem is on the beginning of the proof.
First we define a linear functional $f(x)$ on the space $C[0,1]$.
After that using the Cantor theorem we show that every continuous function on a compact interval is actually bounded and thus $C[0,1]$ is a subspace of $M[0,1]$ - bounded functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
Using the Hahn-Banach theorem we show that our functional $f$ can be extended to a functional $F$ on the whole space $M[0, 1]$ with the same norm.
Maybe I've missed something foundamental, but how do we know that the functional $f$ is bounded, so that it has a norm and it's norm is the same with the extension $F$?
Thanks in advance!
functional-analysis hahn-banach-theorem
I'm currently on a theorem showing a general representation of linear functionals on the space of continuous functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
My problem is on the beginning of the proof.
First we define a linear functional $f(x)$ on the space $C[0,1]$.
After that using the Cantor theorem we show that every continuous function on a compact interval is actually bounded and thus $C[0,1]$ is a subspace of $M[0,1]$ - bounded functions on the interval $[0,1]$.
Using the Hahn-Banach theorem we show that our functional $f$ can be extended to a functional $F$ on the whole space $M[0, 1]$ with the same norm.
Maybe I've missed something foundamental, but how do we know that the functional $f$ is bounded, so that it has a norm and it's norm is the same with the extension $F$?
Thanks in advance!
functional-analysis hahn-banach-theorem
functional-analysis hahn-banach-theorem
edited Jan 4 at 17:15
Nikola
asked Jan 4 at 10:53
NikolaNikola
736719
736719
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No, there exist linear functionals on $C[0,1]$ that are not bounded.
In fact, for every infinite dimensional space there exists a discontinuous (and therefore unbounded) linear functional, see here.
I would suspect that there is an additional assumption somewhere that the linear functional is bounded.
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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No, there exist linear functionals on $C[0,1]$ that are not bounded.
In fact, for every infinite dimensional space there exists a discontinuous (and therefore unbounded) linear functional, see here.
I would suspect that there is an additional assumption somewhere that the linear functional is bounded.
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
add a comment |
No, there exist linear functionals on $C[0,1]$ that are not bounded.
In fact, for every infinite dimensional space there exists a discontinuous (and therefore unbounded) linear functional, see here.
I would suspect that there is an additional assumption somewhere that the linear functional is bounded.
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
add a comment |
No, there exist linear functionals on $C[0,1]$ that are not bounded.
In fact, for every infinite dimensional space there exists a discontinuous (and therefore unbounded) linear functional, see here.
I would suspect that there is an additional assumption somewhere that the linear functional is bounded.
No, there exist linear functionals on $C[0,1]$ that are not bounded.
In fact, for every infinite dimensional space there exists a discontinuous (and therefore unbounded) linear functional, see here.
I would suspect that there is an additional assumption somewhere that the linear functional is bounded.
answered Jan 4 at 11:04
supinfsupinf
6,1041028
6,1041028
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
add a comment |
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
I guess it's just presumed. I think this theorem is a partial case of the Riesz representation theorem, in the end it is just shown that every linear functional can be expressed as a Stiltes integral with a diferential a function with bounded variation.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 11:12
1
1
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
@Nikola No, the Riesz theorem does not show what you said! It's not true that every linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral. Every bounded linear functional is given by a Stieltjes integral.
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 4 at 13:32
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
Then boundedness of the functional is just presumed in the book I"m using.
– Nikola
Jan 4 at 14:03
add a comment |
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