Have I shown $operatorname{Var} X < infty iff mathbb E[X^2] < infty$?












1














Show that $operatorname{Var}{X} < infty iff mathbb E[X^2] < infty$



I am attempting to use the above without the fact that $mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ if $mathbb E[X] < infty$, since we have not been given that $mathbb E[X] < infty$. (although do $operatorname{Var} X < infty$ as well as $mathbb E[X^2]< infty$ respectively imply that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ ?)



"$Rightarrow$"



$operatorname{Var} X= mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=int (X-mathbb E[X])^2dP=int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP$



Since $operatorname{Var} X < infty$, it is well-defined as an integral and therefore $int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP<infty$ implies $int X^2dP<infty$ so $mathbb E[X^2]<infty$



"$Leftarrow$" If $mathbb E[X^2] < infty$ implies that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ then it's easy game. Since $operatorname{Var} X = mathbb E[X^2]- mathbb E[X]^2$ which is $< infty$



Any pointers, improvements, pointing out of mistakes would be greatly appreciated.










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    1














    Show that $operatorname{Var}{X} < infty iff mathbb E[X^2] < infty$



    I am attempting to use the above without the fact that $mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ if $mathbb E[X] < infty$, since we have not been given that $mathbb E[X] < infty$. (although do $operatorname{Var} X < infty$ as well as $mathbb E[X^2]< infty$ respectively imply that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ ?)



    "$Rightarrow$"



    $operatorname{Var} X= mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=int (X-mathbb E[X])^2dP=int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP$



    Since $operatorname{Var} X < infty$, it is well-defined as an integral and therefore $int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP<infty$ implies $int X^2dP<infty$ so $mathbb E[X^2]<infty$



    "$Leftarrow$" If $mathbb E[X^2] < infty$ implies that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ then it's easy game. Since $operatorname{Var} X = mathbb E[X^2]- mathbb E[X]^2$ which is $< infty$



    Any pointers, improvements, pointing out of mistakes would be greatly appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      1












      1








      1







      Show that $operatorname{Var}{X} < infty iff mathbb E[X^2] < infty$



      I am attempting to use the above without the fact that $mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ if $mathbb E[X] < infty$, since we have not been given that $mathbb E[X] < infty$. (although do $operatorname{Var} X < infty$ as well as $mathbb E[X^2]< infty$ respectively imply that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ ?)



      "$Rightarrow$"



      $operatorname{Var} X= mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=int (X-mathbb E[X])^2dP=int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP$



      Since $operatorname{Var} X < infty$, it is well-defined as an integral and therefore $int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP<infty$ implies $int X^2dP<infty$ so $mathbb E[X^2]<infty$



      "$Leftarrow$" If $mathbb E[X^2] < infty$ implies that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ then it's easy game. Since $operatorname{Var} X = mathbb E[X^2]- mathbb E[X]^2$ which is $< infty$



      Any pointers, improvements, pointing out of mistakes would be greatly appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Show that $operatorname{Var}{X} < infty iff mathbb E[X^2] < infty$



      I am attempting to use the above without the fact that $mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=mathbb E[X^2]-mathbb E[X]^2$ if $mathbb E[X] < infty$, since we have not been given that $mathbb E[X] < infty$. (although do $operatorname{Var} X < infty$ as well as $mathbb E[X^2]< infty$ respectively imply that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ ?)



      "$Rightarrow$"



      $operatorname{Var} X= mathbb E[(X-mathbb E[X])^2]=int (X-mathbb E[X])^2dP=int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP$



      Since $operatorname{Var} X < infty$, it is well-defined as an integral and therefore $int(X^2-2Xmathbb E[X]+mathbb E[X]^2)dP<infty$ implies $int X^2dP<infty$ so $mathbb E[X^2]<infty$



      "$Leftarrow$" If $mathbb E[X^2] < infty$ implies that $mathbb E[X] < infty$ then it's easy game. Since $operatorname{Var} X = mathbb E[X^2]- mathbb E[X]^2$ which is $< infty$



      Any pointers, improvements, pointing out of mistakes would be greatly appreciated.







      probability-theory lebesgue-integral variance expected-value






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      edited Jan 4 at 12:05









      Bernard

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      118k639112










      asked Jan 4 at 9:57









      SABOYSABOY

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      508311






















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          To define variance as $E(X-EX)^{2}$ (which is the definition you have adapted) $EX$ must exist either as real number or $pm infty$. If $EX= pminfty$ then $(X-EX)^{2}=infty$ almost surely so variance is $infty$. Hence $var(X) <infty$ implies $EX$ also exists as a finite number. This is the reason nobody defines variance of a random variable that does not even have finite mean. Once you know that $X$ has finite mean you can write $var(X)=EX^{2}-(EX)^{2}$ from which you can easily see that $EX^{2} <infty$ if the variance is finite.






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            To define variance as $E(X-EX)^{2}$ (which is the definition you have adapted) $EX$ must exist either as real number or $pm infty$. If $EX= pminfty$ then $(X-EX)^{2}=infty$ almost surely so variance is $infty$. Hence $var(X) <infty$ implies $EX$ also exists as a finite number. This is the reason nobody defines variance of a random variable that does not even have finite mean. Once you know that $X$ has finite mean you can write $var(X)=EX^{2}-(EX)^{2}$ from which you can easily see that $EX^{2} <infty$ if the variance is finite.






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              3














              To define variance as $E(X-EX)^{2}$ (which is the definition you have adapted) $EX$ must exist either as real number or $pm infty$. If $EX= pminfty$ then $(X-EX)^{2}=infty$ almost surely so variance is $infty$. Hence $var(X) <infty$ implies $EX$ also exists as a finite number. This is the reason nobody defines variance of a random variable that does not even have finite mean. Once you know that $X$ has finite mean you can write $var(X)=EX^{2}-(EX)^{2}$ from which you can easily see that $EX^{2} <infty$ if the variance is finite.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                3












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                To define variance as $E(X-EX)^{2}$ (which is the definition you have adapted) $EX$ must exist either as real number or $pm infty$. If $EX= pminfty$ then $(X-EX)^{2}=infty$ almost surely so variance is $infty$. Hence $var(X) <infty$ implies $EX$ also exists as a finite number. This is the reason nobody defines variance of a random variable that does not even have finite mean. Once you know that $X$ has finite mean you can write $var(X)=EX^{2}-(EX)^{2}$ from which you can easily see that $EX^{2} <infty$ if the variance is finite.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                To define variance as $E(X-EX)^{2}$ (which is the definition you have adapted) $EX$ must exist either as real number or $pm infty$. If $EX= pminfty$ then $(X-EX)^{2}=infty$ almost surely so variance is $infty$. Hence $var(X) <infty$ implies $EX$ also exists as a finite number. This is the reason nobody defines variance of a random variable that does not even have finite mean. Once you know that $X$ has finite mean you can write $var(X)=EX^{2}-(EX)^{2}$ from which you can easily see that $EX^{2} <infty$ if the variance is finite.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



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                edited Jan 4 at 10:22

























                answered Jan 4 at 10:13









                Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

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