Why is the Hausdorff property mentioned in the characterization of profinite groups?












4














Profinite groups are usually characterized as compact, totally disconnected, Hausdorff groups. However, as shown here, every totally disconnected topological group already has the Hausdorff property.



Still, every textbook I've come across explicitly mentions (and even proves) the Hausdorff property in the characterization. Is there any reason whatsoever for this emphasis?










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    4














    Profinite groups are usually characterized as compact, totally disconnected, Hausdorff groups. However, as shown here, every totally disconnected topological group already has the Hausdorff property.



    Still, every textbook I've come across explicitly mentions (and even proves) the Hausdorff property in the characterization. Is there any reason whatsoever for this emphasis?










    share|cite|improve this question







    New contributor




    user631620 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.























      4












      4








      4







      Profinite groups are usually characterized as compact, totally disconnected, Hausdorff groups. However, as shown here, every totally disconnected topological group already has the Hausdorff property.



      Still, every textbook I've come across explicitly mentions (and even proves) the Hausdorff property in the characterization. Is there any reason whatsoever for this emphasis?










      share|cite|improve this question







      New contributor




      user631620 is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      Profinite groups are usually characterized as compact, totally disconnected, Hausdorff groups. However, as shown here, every totally disconnected topological group already has the Hausdorff property.



      Still, every textbook I've come across explicitly mentions (and even proves) the Hausdorff property in the characterization. Is there any reason whatsoever for this emphasis?







      group-theory topological-groups profinite-groups






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      asked Jan 4 at 12:37









      user631620user631620

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          2 Answers
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          Yes it is quite funny that every totally disconnected topological group is automatically Hausdorff.
          There are more places in mathematics where this superfluousness is present. For example the definition of a (left) module $M$ over a ring $R$ with identity $1$. In every textbook $M$ is required to be an abelian group, but it is implied by the axioms: $r(m_1+m_2)=rm_1+rm_2$ en $(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m$. For these yield $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_1+m_2+m_2$ and also $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_2+m_1+m_2$, whence $m_1+m_2=m_2+m_1$!

          So I guess it is laziness or a matter of ease.






          share|cite|improve this answer































            0














            For a topological group it's equivalent to be $T_0$, $T_1$, $T_2$ or even completely regular ($T_{3frac12}$). So we just want to exclude the case where we have a large indiscrete subgroup like $overline{{e}}$, even though the totally disconnected condition already implies this.



            It's pretty routine to demand compact spaces to be also Hausdorff, and all topological groups to have non-trivial separation axioms too. So it's probably force of habit.






            share|cite|improve this answer























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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              active

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              active

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              active

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              1














              Yes it is quite funny that every totally disconnected topological group is automatically Hausdorff.
              There are more places in mathematics where this superfluousness is present. For example the definition of a (left) module $M$ over a ring $R$ with identity $1$. In every textbook $M$ is required to be an abelian group, but it is implied by the axioms: $r(m_1+m_2)=rm_1+rm_2$ en $(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m$. For these yield $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_1+m_2+m_2$ and also $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_2+m_1+m_2$, whence $m_1+m_2=m_2+m_1$!

              So I guess it is laziness or a matter of ease.






              share|cite|improve this answer




























                1














                Yes it is quite funny that every totally disconnected topological group is automatically Hausdorff.
                There are more places in mathematics where this superfluousness is present. For example the definition of a (left) module $M$ over a ring $R$ with identity $1$. In every textbook $M$ is required to be an abelian group, but it is implied by the axioms: $r(m_1+m_2)=rm_1+rm_2$ en $(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m$. For these yield $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_1+m_2+m_2$ and also $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_2+m_1+m_2$, whence $m_1+m_2=m_2+m_1$!

                So I guess it is laziness or a matter of ease.






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  Yes it is quite funny that every totally disconnected topological group is automatically Hausdorff.
                  There are more places in mathematics where this superfluousness is present. For example the definition of a (left) module $M$ over a ring $R$ with identity $1$. In every textbook $M$ is required to be an abelian group, but it is implied by the axioms: $r(m_1+m_2)=rm_1+rm_2$ en $(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m$. For these yield $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_1+m_2+m_2$ and also $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_2+m_1+m_2$, whence $m_1+m_2=m_2+m_1$!

                  So I guess it is laziness or a matter of ease.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  Yes it is quite funny that every totally disconnected topological group is automatically Hausdorff.
                  There are more places in mathematics where this superfluousness is present. For example the definition of a (left) module $M$ over a ring $R$ with identity $1$. In every textbook $M$ is required to be an abelian group, but it is implied by the axioms: $r(m_1+m_2)=rm_1+rm_2$ en $(r_1+r_2)m=r_1m+r_2m$. For these yield $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_1+m_2+m_2$ and also $(1+1)(m_1+m_2)=m_1+m_2+m_1+m_2$, whence $m_1+m_2=m_2+m_1$!

                  So I guess it is laziness or a matter of ease.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 4 at 14:10

























                  answered Jan 4 at 13:43









                  Nicky HeksterNicky Hekster

                  28.3k53456




                  28.3k53456























                      0














                      For a topological group it's equivalent to be $T_0$, $T_1$, $T_2$ or even completely regular ($T_{3frac12}$). So we just want to exclude the case where we have a large indiscrete subgroup like $overline{{e}}$, even though the totally disconnected condition already implies this.



                      It's pretty routine to demand compact spaces to be also Hausdorff, and all topological groups to have non-trivial separation axioms too. So it's probably force of habit.






                      share|cite|improve this answer




























                        0














                        For a topological group it's equivalent to be $T_0$, $T_1$, $T_2$ or even completely regular ($T_{3frac12}$). So we just want to exclude the case where we have a large indiscrete subgroup like $overline{{e}}$, even though the totally disconnected condition already implies this.



                        It's pretty routine to demand compact spaces to be also Hausdorff, and all topological groups to have non-trivial separation axioms too. So it's probably force of habit.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0












                          0








                          0






                          For a topological group it's equivalent to be $T_0$, $T_1$, $T_2$ or even completely regular ($T_{3frac12}$). So we just want to exclude the case where we have a large indiscrete subgroup like $overline{{e}}$, even though the totally disconnected condition already implies this.



                          It's pretty routine to demand compact spaces to be also Hausdorff, and all topological groups to have non-trivial separation axioms too. So it's probably force of habit.






                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          For a topological group it's equivalent to be $T_0$, $T_1$, $T_2$ or even completely regular ($T_{3frac12}$). So we just want to exclude the case where we have a large indiscrete subgroup like $overline{{e}}$, even though the totally disconnected condition already implies this.



                          It's pretty routine to demand compact spaces to be also Hausdorff, and all topological groups to have non-trivial separation axioms too. So it's probably force of habit.







                          share|cite|improve this answer














                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer








                          edited Jan 5 at 9:45

























                          answered Jan 4 at 23:54









                          Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                          105k347114




                          105k347114






















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