Cech cohomology does not compute étale cohomology - Explanation of an example
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In the first answer to this MO post the author says that the $H^2$ of $X$ can be compute using the Cech-to-derived functor spectral sequence, i.e. in that case the Mayer-Vietoris sequence.
I'm having trouble in understanding how it works: as for $H^1(Ucap V)$, this should be equal to $$H^1_{et}(operatorname{Spec} k((t)), A)=Cont(Gal(k((t))^s,k((t))),mathbb Z/n)=Cont((1),mathbb Z/n)congmathbb Z/n.$$
(See the answer to this post, second part.)
Is this correct?
But when I come to compute $H^1_{et}(U,A)$ and $H^1_{et}(V,A)$, which I would like to be $0$ in order to conclude that $H^2_{et}(X,A)cong H^1_{et}(Ucap V,A)cong mathbb Z/n$, I am stuck. Can someone give me a clue?
Thank you in advance.
algebraic-geometry schemes derived-functors etale-cohomology
$endgroup$
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
In the first answer to this MO post the author says that the $H^2$ of $X$ can be compute using the Cech-to-derived functor spectral sequence, i.e. in that case the Mayer-Vietoris sequence.
I'm having trouble in understanding how it works: as for $H^1(Ucap V)$, this should be equal to $$H^1_{et}(operatorname{Spec} k((t)), A)=Cont(Gal(k((t))^s,k((t))),mathbb Z/n)=Cont((1),mathbb Z/n)congmathbb Z/n.$$
(See the answer to this post, second part.)
Is this correct?
But when I come to compute $H^1_{et}(U,A)$ and $H^1_{et}(V,A)$, which I would like to be $0$ in order to conclude that $H^2_{et}(X,A)cong H^1_{et}(Ucap V,A)cong mathbb Z/n$, I am stuck. Can someone give me a clue?
Thank you in advance.
algebraic-geometry schemes derived-functors etale-cohomology
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
1
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
1
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30
|
show 2 more comments
$begingroup$
In the first answer to this MO post the author says that the $H^2$ of $X$ can be compute using the Cech-to-derived functor spectral sequence, i.e. in that case the Mayer-Vietoris sequence.
I'm having trouble in understanding how it works: as for $H^1(Ucap V)$, this should be equal to $$H^1_{et}(operatorname{Spec} k((t)), A)=Cont(Gal(k((t))^s,k((t))),mathbb Z/n)=Cont((1),mathbb Z/n)congmathbb Z/n.$$
(See the answer to this post, second part.)
Is this correct?
But when I come to compute $H^1_{et}(U,A)$ and $H^1_{et}(V,A)$, which I would like to be $0$ in order to conclude that $H^2_{et}(X,A)cong H^1_{et}(Ucap V,A)cong mathbb Z/n$, I am stuck. Can someone give me a clue?
Thank you in advance.
algebraic-geometry schemes derived-functors etale-cohomology
$endgroup$
In the first answer to this MO post the author says that the $H^2$ of $X$ can be compute using the Cech-to-derived functor spectral sequence, i.e. in that case the Mayer-Vietoris sequence.
I'm having trouble in understanding how it works: as for $H^1(Ucap V)$, this should be equal to $$H^1_{et}(operatorname{Spec} k((t)), A)=Cont(Gal(k((t))^s,k((t))),mathbb Z/n)=Cont((1),mathbb Z/n)congmathbb Z/n.$$
(See the answer to this post, second part.)
Is this correct?
But when I come to compute $H^1_{et}(U,A)$ and $H^1_{et}(V,A)$, which I would like to be $0$ in order to conclude that $H^2_{et}(X,A)cong H^1_{et}(Ucap V,A)cong mathbb Z/n$, I am stuck. Can someone give me a clue?
Thank you in advance.
algebraic-geometry schemes derived-functors etale-cohomology
algebraic-geometry schemes derived-functors etale-cohomology
edited Jan 7 at 20:23
W. Rether
asked Jan 7 at 16:22
W. RetherW. Rether
728417
728417
1
$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
1
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
1
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30
|
show 2 more comments
1
$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
1
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
1
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30
1
1
$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
1
1
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
1
1
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
1
1
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30
|
show 2 more comments
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$begingroup$
$k[[t]]$ is a strictly henselian ring, so there is no non-trivial étale covering. In other word, this is a point for the étale topology. Hence, it has vanishing higher cohomology.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 18:36
$begingroup$
Ok, thanks. There is just onething I'm missing: why is the same false for $k((t))$?
$endgroup$
– W. Rether
Jan 7 at 18:57
1
$begingroup$
Because $k((t))$ is not algebraically closed. As you wrote, its $H^1$ is the group of continuous homomorphism from $operatorname{Gal}(k((t))^s/k((t)))$ to $A$ (not $mathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). A classical picture : $k[[t]]$ is a small disc and $k((t))$ is the punctured disc. So $k[[t]]$ is contractible and it has no cohomology, $k((t))$ is homotopy equivalent to a circle so it has a $H^1simeq A$.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 19:30
1
$begingroup$
Sure it is possible, but you didn't specify $A$. This is just for the formula $Cont(Gal,A)simeqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$ (which is false if $Aneqmathbb{Z}/nmathbb{Z}$). I just have a doubt : I believe, one need that $k$ is of characteristic $0$ or that $A$ has torsion prime to the characteristic.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:01
1
$begingroup$
This is because the Galois group of $k((t))$ as a huge $p$-torsion part. If $A$ has no $p$-torsion, then $Cont(G,A)$ factor through the "prime to $p$" quotient which is $mathbb{Z}'(1)=prod_{lneq p}mathbb{Z}_l(1)$. But if $A$ has $p$ torsion, this may be very different.
$endgroup$
– Roland
Jan 7 at 20:30