Solve for “R” in classic annuity formula












1












$begingroup$


$$p=frac{c}r*(1-frac1{(r+1)^t} )$$



I'm stuck. I'm building an excel model where I will be able to put in inputs for p, c, and t... but it will need to solve for "r."



For some reason, I can't figure out the algebra.



Can you help me solve for "r"?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 6 at 1:14










  • $begingroup$
    I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 7 at 7:57
















1












$begingroup$


$$p=frac{c}r*(1-frac1{(r+1)^t} )$$



I'm stuck. I'm building an excel model where I will be able to put in inputs for p, c, and t... but it will need to solve for "r."



For some reason, I can't figure out the algebra.



Can you help me solve for "r"?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 6 at 1:14










  • $begingroup$
    I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 7 at 7:57














1












1








1





$begingroup$


$$p=frac{c}r*(1-frac1{(r+1)^t} )$$



I'm stuck. I'm building an excel model where I will be able to put in inputs for p, c, and t... but it will need to solve for "r."



For some reason, I can't figure out the algebra.



Can you help me solve for "r"?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$$p=frac{c}r*(1-frac1{(r+1)^t} )$$



I'm stuck. I'm building an excel model where I will be able to put in inputs for p, c, and t... but it will need to solve for "r."



For some reason, I can't figure out the algebra.



Can you help me solve for "r"?







algebra-precalculus finance






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 6 at 1:13









Antoni Parellada

2,96521341




2,96521341










asked Jan 6 at 0:48









Sir Roland Baggybottom IVSir Roland Baggybottom IV

83




83












  • $begingroup$
    Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 6 at 1:14










  • $begingroup$
    I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 7 at 7:57


















  • $begingroup$
    Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 6 at 1:14










  • $begingroup$
    I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Jan 7 at 7:57
















$begingroup$
Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Jan 6 at 1:14




$begingroup$
Excel has a solver add-in that is useful in situations like this.
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Jan 6 at 1:14












$begingroup$
I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Jan 7 at 7:57




$begingroup$
I found the link for the "green" formula. Added a few lines at the bottom to show you what you could do for an incredible accuracy. Cheers.
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Jan 7 at 7:57










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

As Hello_World answered, the simplest way would be to use Newton method for finding the zero of function
$$f(r) = frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)-p$$



If you start using $r_0=0$, the first iterate would be $r_1=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}$ and you just need to continue until convergence to the desired precision.



The is another thing you can do since $r ll 1$. Build the Taylor series at $r=0$ to get
$$f(r)+p=c t-frac{1}{2} r (c t (t+1))+frac{1}{6} c r^2 t (t+1) (t+2)-frac{1}{24} r^3 (c t
(t+1) (t+2) (t+3))+frac{1}{120} c r^4 t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4)-frac{1}{720}
r^5 (c t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4) (t+5))+Oleft(r^6right)$$
and now use series reversion to get
$$color{blue}{r=x+frac{t+2}{3} x^2+frac{5 t^2+17 t+14}{36} x^3+frac{17 t^3+78 t^2+117 t+58}{270}
x^4+frac{193 t^4+1094 t^3+2301
t^2+2144 t+748 }{6480}x^5+Oleft(x^{6}right)}$$
where $color{blue}{x=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}}$ (this is $r_1$)



Let us try using $p=100000$, $c=1000$ and $t=120$. This gives $x=frac 1 {363}$. Using the expansion above, this leads to $r=frac{31795409217001}{10210526568429660}approx 0.00311398$ while the "exact" solution obtained using Newton method would be obtained after the following iterates
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & r_n \
0 & 0.000000000000 \
1 & 0.002754820937 \
2 & 0.003161445197 \
3 & 0.003114792911 \
4 & 0.003114182051 \
5 & 0.003114181946
end{array}
right)$$



As you can see, without any iterative procedure we can get a very close solution of the problem (for the working case, the relative error is about $0.0065$% !).



Adding more terms will give a better result (if you want them, just ask).



Edit



Working a bit more, the blue formula may be written in a more compact form (for an even better accuracy) using a Padé approximant
$$r=x ,frac{1+a_1x+a_2x^2}{1+b_1x+b_2x^2}$$ where
$$a_1=-frac{2 left(2 t^2+3 t+1right)}{11 t+13}qquad a_2=frac{4 t^3-3 t-1}{45 (11 t+13)}$$
$$b_1=-frac{23 t^2+53 t+32}{3 (11 t+13)}qquad b_2=frac{67 t^3+240 t^2+291 t+122}{60 (11 t+13)}$$ For the work example, this would give $r=frac{13916770468}{4468838772519}approx 0.0031141805$



Update



Asking a banker friend of mine, he mentioned an approximation he saw somewhere in the past (he does not remember when and/or where. I just found where). I is
$$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ Applied to the worked example, this gives $0.00310743$.



Using this estimate as $r_0$, Newton iterates would be
$$left(
begin{array}{cc}
n & r_n \
0 & 0.003107429977 \
1 & 0.003114180156 \
2 & 0.003114181946
end{array}
right)$$
which is real fast. I suppose that one single iteration of Newton method will be more than sufficient.



You could use as a very safe solution
$$r=r_0+frac{2,f(r_0) ,f'(r_0)}{f(r_0), f''(r_0)-2, f'(r_0)^2}$$ where $r_0$ is the result of the green formula.



Applied to the worked example, this would lead to
$r=0.00311418194589$ while th exact solution would be
$r=0.00311418194600$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    You could try Newton's method to solve for $r.$ Take,
    $$F(r) = p-frac{c}rcdot left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)$$
    then your goal is to find $r$ such that $F(r)=0.$ For this you start with some choice $r_0$ and then use the following recursive definition:
    $$r_{n+1}= r_n - frac{F(r_n)}{F'(r_n)}.$$
    This will converge to the root of $F.$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      0












      $begingroup$

      I prefer to add a second answer.



      Being just fascinated by David W. Cantrell's approximation
      $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ totally inspired by it, I tried something in the same spirit
      $$frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)=pimplies 1+frac{c}{p}=1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}$$ Taking logarithms of both sides
      $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}right)$$ Now, expanding the rhs as a Taylor series at $r=0$
      $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{r}{2}+frac{2t-5}{24} r^2 +Oleft(r^3right)$$
      Neglecting the second order term, we the obtain the first approximation
      $$color{blue}{r_1 =2 log left(frac{t ,(c+p)}{p, (t+1)}right)}$$
      Using the complete expansion to $Oleft(r^3right)$, we then have the second approximation
      $$color{blue}{r_2=frac{sqrt{1+4, alpha, r_1}-1}{2 alpha }}qquad text{where}qquad color{blue}{alpha=frac {2t-5}{12}}$$



      We could even avoid quadratic equations building the simplest Padé approximant instead of the Taylor series. This gives
      $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=frac{log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{1}{12} left((5-2 t) log
      left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+6right) r} {1+ frac{5-2t}{12} r }implies
      color{blue}{r_3=frac{12,r_1}{12+(2t-5),r_1}}$$



      Applied to the worked example, this would give
      $$r_1=2 log left(frac{606}{605}right)approx 0.00330306$$
      $$r_2=frac{2}{235} left(sqrt{9+1410 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}-3right)approx 0.00311325$$
      $$r_3=frac{12 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}{6+235 log
      left(frac{606}{605}right)}approx 0.00310238$$

      while the exact solution is $$r=0.00311418$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes








        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

        votes









        1












        $begingroup$

        As Hello_World answered, the simplest way would be to use Newton method for finding the zero of function
        $$f(r) = frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)-p$$



        If you start using $r_0=0$, the first iterate would be $r_1=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}$ and you just need to continue until convergence to the desired precision.



        The is another thing you can do since $r ll 1$. Build the Taylor series at $r=0$ to get
        $$f(r)+p=c t-frac{1}{2} r (c t (t+1))+frac{1}{6} c r^2 t (t+1) (t+2)-frac{1}{24} r^3 (c t
        (t+1) (t+2) (t+3))+frac{1}{120} c r^4 t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4)-frac{1}{720}
        r^5 (c t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4) (t+5))+Oleft(r^6right)$$
        and now use series reversion to get
        $$color{blue}{r=x+frac{t+2}{3} x^2+frac{5 t^2+17 t+14}{36} x^3+frac{17 t^3+78 t^2+117 t+58}{270}
        x^4+frac{193 t^4+1094 t^3+2301
        t^2+2144 t+748 }{6480}x^5+Oleft(x^{6}right)}$$
        where $color{blue}{x=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}}$ (this is $r_1$)



        Let us try using $p=100000$, $c=1000$ and $t=120$. This gives $x=frac 1 {363}$. Using the expansion above, this leads to $r=frac{31795409217001}{10210526568429660}approx 0.00311398$ while the "exact" solution obtained using Newton method would be obtained after the following iterates
        $$left(
        begin{array}{cc}
        n & r_n \
        0 & 0.000000000000 \
        1 & 0.002754820937 \
        2 & 0.003161445197 \
        3 & 0.003114792911 \
        4 & 0.003114182051 \
        5 & 0.003114181946
        end{array}
        right)$$



        As you can see, without any iterative procedure we can get a very close solution of the problem (for the working case, the relative error is about $0.0065$% !).



        Adding more terms will give a better result (if you want them, just ask).



        Edit



        Working a bit more, the blue formula may be written in a more compact form (for an even better accuracy) using a Padé approximant
        $$r=x ,frac{1+a_1x+a_2x^2}{1+b_1x+b_2x^2}$$ where
        $$a_1=-frac{2 left(2 t^2+3 t+1right)}{11 t+13}qquad a_2=frac{4 t^3-3 t-1}{45 (11 t+13)}$$
        $$b_1=-frac{23 t^2+53 t+32}{3 (11 t+13)}qquad b_2=frac{67 t^3+240 t^2+291 t+122}{60 (11 t+13)}$$ For the work example, this would give $r=frac{13916770468}{4468838772519}approx 0.0031141805$



        Update



        Asking a banker friend of mine, he mentioned an approximation he saw somewhere in the past (he does not remember when and/or where. I just found where). I is
        $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ Applied to the worked example, this gives $0.00310743$.



        Using this estimate as $r_0$, Newton iterates would be
        $$left(
        begin{array}{cc}
        n & r_n \
        0 & 0.003107429977 \
        1 & 0.003114180156 \
        2 & 0.003114181946
        end{array}
        right)$$
        which is real fast. I suppose that one single iteration of Newton method will be more than sufficient.



        You could use as a very safe solution
        $$r=r_0+frac{2,f(r_0) ,f'(r_0)}{f(r_0), f''(r_0)-2, f'(r_0)^2}$$ where $r_0$ is the result of the green formula.



        Applied to the worked example, this would lead to
        $r=0.00311418194589$ while th exact solution would be
        $r=0.00311418194600$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$


















          1












          $begingroup$

          As Hello_World answered, the simplest way would be to use Newton method for finding the zero of function
          $$f(r) = frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)-p$$



          If you start using $r_0=0$, the first iterate would be $r_1=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}$ and you just need to continue until convergence to the desired precision.



          The is another thing you can do since $r ll 1$. Build the Taylor series at $r=0$ to get
          $$f(r)+p=c t-frac{1}{2} r (c t (t+1))+frac{1}{6} c r^2 t (t+1) (t+2)-frac{1}{24} r^3 (c t
          (t+1) (t+2) (t+3))+frac{1}{120} c r^4 t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4)-frac{1}{720}
          r^5 (c t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4) (t+5))+Oleft(r^6right)$$
          and now use series reversion to get
          $$color{blue}{r=x+frac{t+2}{3} x^2+frac{5 t^2+17 t+14}{36} x^3+frac{17 t^3+78 t^2+117 t+58}{270}
          x^4+frac{193 t^4+1094 t^3+2301
          t^2+2144 t+748 }{6480}x^5+Oleft(x^{6}right)}$$
          where $color{blue}{x=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}}$ (this is $r_1$)



          Let us try using $p=100000$, $c=1000$ and $t=120$. This gives $x=frac 1 {363}$. Using the expansion above, this leads to $r=frac{31795409217001}{10210526568429660}approx 0.00311398$ while the "exact" solution obtained using Newton method would be obtained after the following iterates
          $$left(
          begin{array}{cc}
          n & r_n \
          0 & 0.000000000000 \
          1 & 0.002754820937 \
          2 & 0.003161445197 \
          3 & 0.003114792911 \
          4 & 0.003114182051 \
          5 & 0.003114181946
          end{array}
          right)$$



          As you can see, without any iterative procedure we can get a very close solution of the problem (for the working case, the relative error is about $0.0065$% !).



          Adding more terms will give a better result (if you want them, just ask).



          Edit



          Working a bit more, the blue formula may be written in a more compact form (for an even better accuracy) using a Padé approximant
          $$r=x ,frac{1+a_1x+a_2x^2}{1+b_1x+b_2x^2}$$ where
          $$a_1=-frac{2 left(2 t^2+3 t+1right)}{11 t+13}qquad a_2=frac{4 t^3-3 t-1}{45 (11 t+13)}$$
          $$b_1=-frac{23 t^2+53 t+32}{3 (11 t+13)}qquad b_2=frac{67 t^3+240 t^2+291 t+122}{60 (11 t+13)}$$ For the work example, this would give $r=frac{13916770468}{4468838772519}approx 0.0031141805$



          Update



          Asking a banker friend of mine, he mentioned an approximation he saw somewhere in the past (he does not remember when and/or where. I just found where). I is
          $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ Applied to the worked example, this gives $0.00310743$.



          Using this estimate as $r_0$, Newton iterates would be
          $$left(
          begin{array}{cc}
          n & r_n \
          0 & 0.003107429977 \
          1 & 0.003114180156 \
          2 & 0.003114181946
          end{array}
          right)$$
          which is real fast. I suppose that one single iteration of Newton method will be more than sufficient.



          You could use as a very safe solution
          $$r=r_0+frac{2,f(r_0) ,f'(r_0)}{f(r_0), f''(r_0)-2, f'(r_0)^2}$$ where $r_0$ is the result of the green formula.



          Applied to the worked example, this would lead to
          $r=0.00311418194589$ while th exact solution would be
          $r=0.00311418194600$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$
















            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            As Hello_World answered, the simplest way would be to use Newton method for finding the zero of function
            $$f(r) = frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)-p$$



            If you start using $r_0=0$, the first iterate would be $r_1=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}$ and you just need to continue until convergence to the desired precision.



            The is another thing you can do since $r ll 1$. Build the Taylor series at $r=0$ to get
            $$f(r)+p=c t-frac{1}{2} r (c t (t+1))+frac{1}{6} c r^2 t (t+1) (t+2)-frac{1}{24} r^3 (c t
            (t+1) (t+2) (t+3))+frac{1}{120} c r^4 t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4)-frac{1}{720}
            r^5 (c t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4) (t+5))+Oleft(r^6right)$$
            and now use series reversion to get
            $$color{blue}{r=x+frac{t+2}{3} x^2+frac{5 t^2+17 t+14}{36} x^3+frac{17 t^3+78 t^2+117 t+58}{270}
            x^4+frac{193 t^4+1094 t^3+2301
            t^2+2144 t+748 }{6480}x^5+Oleft(x^{6}right)}$$
            where $color{blue}{x=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}}$ (this is $r_1$)



            Let us try using $p=100000$, $c=1000$ and $t=120$. This gives $x=frac 1 {363}$. Using the expansion above, this leads to $r=frac{31795409217001}{10210526568429660}approx 0.00311398$ while the "exact" solution obtained using Newton method would be obtained after the following iterates
            $$left(
            begin{array}{cc}
            n & r_n \
            0 & 0.000000000000 \
            1 & 0.002754820937 \
            2 & 0.003161445197 \
            3 & 0.003114792911 \
            4 & 0.003114182051 \
            5 & 0.003114181946
            end{array}
            right)$$



            As you can see, without any iterative procedure we can get a very close solution of the problem (for the working case, the relative error is about $0.0065$% !).



            Adding more terms will give a better result (if you want them, just ask).



            Edit



            Working a bit more, the blue formula may be written in a more compact form (for an even better accuracy) using a Padé approximant
            $$r=x ,frac{1+a_1x+a_2x^2}{1+b_1x+b_2x^2}$$ where
            $$a_1=-frac{2 left(2 t^2+3 t+1right)}{11 t+13}qquad a_2=frac{4 t^3-3 t-1}{45 (11 t+13)}$$
            $$b_1=-frac{23 t^2+53 t+32}{3 (11 t+13)}qquad b_2=frac{67 t^3+240 t^2+291 t+122}{60 (11 t+13)}$$ For the work example, this would give $r=frac{13916770468}{4468838772519}approx 0.0031141805$



            Update



            Asking a banker friend of mine, he mentioned an approximation he saw somewhere in the past (he does not remember when and/or where. I just found where). I is
            $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ Applied to the worked example, this gives $0.00310743$.



            Using this estimate as $r_0$, Newton iterates would be
            $$left(
            begin{array}{cc}
            n & r_n \
            0 & 0.003107429977 \
            1 & 0.003114180156 \
            2 & 0.003114181946
            end{array}
            right)$$
            which is real fast. I suppose that one single iteration of Newton method will be more than sufficient.



            You could use as a very safe solution
            $$r=r_0+frac{2,f(r_0) ,f'(r_0)}{f(r_0), f''(r_0)-2, f'(r_0)^2}$$ where $r_0$ is the result of the green formula.



            Applied to the worked example, this would lead to
            $r=0.00311418194589$ while th exact solution would be
            $r=0.00311418194600$






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            As Hello_World answered, the simplest way would be to use Newton method for finding the zero of function
            $$f(r) = frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)-p$$



            If you start using $r_0=0$, the first iterate would be $r_1=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}$ and you just need to continue until convergence to the desired precision.



            The is another thing you can do since $r ll 1$. Build the Taylor series at $r=0$ to get
            $$f(r)+p=c t-frac{1}{2} r (c t (t+1))+frac{1}{6} c r^2 t (t+1) (t+2)-frac{1}{24} r^3 (c t
            (t+1) (t+2) (t+3))+frac{1}{120} c r^4 t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4)-frac{1}{720}
            r^5 (c t (t+1) (t+2) (t+3) (t+4) (t+5))+Oleft(r^6right)$$
            and now use series reversion to get
            $$color{blue}{r=x+frac{t+2}{3} x^2+frac{5 t^2+17 t+14}{36} x^3+frac{17 t^3+78 t^2+117 t+58}{270}
            x^4+frac{193 t^4+1094 t^3+2301
            t^2+2144 t+748 }{6480}x^5+Oleft(x^{6}right)}$$
            where $color{blue}{x=frac{2 (c t-p)}{ct left(t+1right)}}$ (this is $r_1$)



            Let us try using $p=100000$, $c=1000$ and $t=120$. This gives $x=frac 1 {363}$. Using the expansion above, this leads to $r=frac{31795409217001}{10210526568429660}approx 0.00311398$ while the "exact" solution obtained using Newton method would be obtained after the following iterates
            $$left(
            begin{array}{cc}
            n & r_n \
            0 & 0.000000000000 \
            1 & 0.002754820937 \
            2 & 0.003161445197 \
            3 & 0.003114792911 \
            4 & 0.003114182051 \
            5 & 0.003114181946
            end{array}
            right)$$



            As you can see, without any iterative procedure we can get a very close solution of the problem (for the working case, the relative error is about $0.0065$% !).



            Adding more terms will give a better result (if you want them, just ask).



            Edit



            Working a bit more, the blue formula may be written in a more compact form (for an even better accuracy) using a Padé approximant
            $$r=x ,frac{1+a_1x+a_2x^2}{1+b_1x+b_2x^2}$$ where
            $$a_1=-frac{2 left(2 t^2+3 t+1right)}{11 t+13}qquad a_2=frac{4 t^3-3 t-1}{45 (11 t+13)}$$
            $$b_1=-frac{23 t^2+53 t+32}{3 (11 t+13)}qquad b_2=frac{67 t^3+240 t^2+291 t+122}{60 (11 t+13)}$$ For the work example, this would give $r=frac{13916770468}{4468838772519}approx 0.0031141805$



            Update



            Asking a banker friend of mine, he mentioned an approximation he saw somewhere in the past (he does not remember when and/or where. I just found where). I is
            $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ Applied to the worked example, this gives $0.00310743$.



            Using this estimate as $r_0$, Newton iterates would be
            $$left(
            begin{array}{cc}
            n & r_n \
            0 & 0.003107429977 \
            1 & 0.003114180156 \
            2 & 0.003114181946
            end{array}
            right)$$
            which is real fast. I suppose that one single iteration of Newton method will be more than sufficient.



            You could use as a very safe solution
            $$r=r_0+frac{2,f(r_0) ,f'(r_0)}{f(r_0), f''(r_0)-2, f'(r_0)^2}$$ where $r_0$ is the result of the green formula.



            Applied to the worked example, this would lead to
            $r=0.00311418194589$ while th exact solution would be
            $r=0.00311418194600$







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 7 at 7:22

























            answered Jan 6 at 5:47









            Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici

            120k1157132




            120k1157132























                2












                $begingroup$

                You could try Newton's method to solve for $r.$ Take,
                $$F(r) = p-frac{c}rcdot left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)$$
                then your goal is to find $r$ such that $F(r)=0.$ For this you start with some choice $r_0$ and then use the following recursive definition:
                $$r_{n+1}= r_n - frac{F(r_n)}{F'(r_n)}.$$
                This will converge to the root of $F.$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  You could try Newton's method to solve for $r.$ Take,
                  $$F(r) = p-frac{c}rcdot left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)$$
                  then your goal is to find $r$ such that $F(r)=0.$ For this you start with some choice $r_0$ and then use the following recursive definition:
                  $$r_{n+1}= r_n - frac{F(r_n)}{F'(r_n)}.$$
                  This will converge to the root of $F.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    You could try Newton's method to solve for $r.$ Take,
                    $$F(r) = p-frac{c}rcdot left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)$$
                    then your goal is to find $r$ such that $F(r)=0.$ For this you start with some choice $r_0$ and then use the following recursive definition:
                    $$r_{n+1}= r_n - frac{F(r_n)}{F'(r_n)}.$$
                    This will converge to the root of $F.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    You could try Newton's method to solve for $r.$ Take,
                    $$F(r) = p-frac{c}rcdot left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)$$
                    then your goal is to find $r$ such that $F(r)=0.$ For this you start with some choice $r_0$ and then use the following recursive definition:
                    $$r_{n+1}= r_n - frac{F(r_n)}{F'(r_n)}.$$
                    This will converge to the root of $F.$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 6 at 1:20









                    Hello_WorldHello_World

                    4,16421631




                    4,16421631























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        I prefer to add a second answer.



                        Being just fascinated by David W. Cantrell's approximation
                        $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ totally inspired by it, I tried something in the same spirit
                        $$frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)=pimplies 1+frac{c}{p}=1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}$$ Taking logarithms of both sides
                        $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}right)$$ Now, expanding the rhs as a Taylor series at $r=0$
                        $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{r}{2}+frac{2t-5}{24} r^2 +Oleft(r^3right)$$
                        Neglecting the second order term, we the obtain the first approximation
                        $$color{blue}{r_1 =2 log left(frac{t ,(c+p)}{p, (t+1)}right)}$$
                        Using the complete expansion to $Oleft(r^3right)$, we then have the second approximation
                        $$color{blue}{r_2=frac{sqrt{1+4, alpha, r_1}-1}{2 alpha }}qquad text{where}qquad color{blue}{alpha=frac {2t-5}{12}}$$



                        We could even avoid quadratic equations building the simplest Padé approximant instead of the Taylor series. This gives
                        $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=frac{log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{1}{12} left((5-2 t) log
                        left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+6right) r} {1+ frac{5-2t}{12} r }implies
                        color{blue}{r_3=frac{12,r_1}{12+(2t-5),r_1}}$$



                        Applied to the worked example, this would give
                        $$r_1=2 log left(frac{606}{605}right)approx 0.00330306$$
                        $$r_2=frac{2}{235} left(sqrt{9+1410 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}-3right)approx 0.00311325$$
                        $$r_3=frac{12 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}{6+235 log
                        left(frac{606}{605}right)}approx 0.00310238$$

                        while the exact solution is $$r=0.00311418$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          0












                          $begingroup$

                          I prefer to add a second answer.



                          Being just fascinated by David W. Cantrell's approximation
                          $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ totally inspired by it, I tried something in the same spirit
                          $$frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)=pimplies 1+frac{c}{p}=1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}$$ Taking logarithms of both sides
                          $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}right)$$ Now, expanding the rhs as a Taylor series at $r=0$
                          $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{r}{2}+frac{2t-5}{24} r^2 +Oleft(r^3right)$$
                          Neglecting the second order term, we the obtain the first approximation
                          $$color{blue}{r_1 =2 log left(frac{t ,(c+p)}{p, (t+1)}right)}$$
                          Using the complete expansion to $Oleft(r^3right)$, we then have the second approximation
                          $$color{blue}{r_2=frac{sqrt{1+4, alpha, r_1}-1}{2 alpha }}qquad text{where}qquad color{blue}{alpha=frac {2t-5}{12}}$$



                          We could even avoid quadratic equations building the simplest Padé approximant instead of the Taylor series. This gives
                          $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=frac{log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{1}{12} left((5-2 t) log
                          left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+6right) r} {1+ frac{5-2t}{12} r }implies
                          color{blue}{r_3=frac{12,r_1}{12+(2t-5),r_1}}$$



                          Applied to the worked example, this would give
                          $$r_1=2 log left(frac{606}{605}right)approx 0.00330306$$
                          $$r_2=frac{2}{235} left(sqrt{9+1410 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}-3right)approx 0.00311325$$
                          $$r_3=frac{12 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}{6+235 log
                          left(frac{606}{605}right)}approx 0.00310238$$

                          while the exact solution is $$r=0.00311418$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            0












                            0








                            0





                            $begingroup$

                            I prefer to add a second answer.



                            Being just fascinated by David W. Cantrell's approximation
                            $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ totally inspired by it, I tried something in the same spirit
                            $$frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)=pimplies 1+frac{c}{p}=1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}$$ Taking logarithms of both sides
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}right)$$ Now, expanding the rhs as a Taylor series at $r=0$
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{r}{2}+frac{2t-5}{24} r^2 +Oleft(r^3right)$$
                            Neglecting the second order term, we the obtain the first approximation
                            $$color{blue}{r_1 =2 log left(frac{t ,(c+p)}{p, (t+1)}right)}$$
                            Using the complete expansion to $Oleft(r^3right)$, we then have the second approximation
                            $$color{blue}{r_2=frac{sqrt{1+4, alpha, r_1}-1}{2 alpha }}qquad text{where}qquad color{blue}{alpha=frac {2t-5}{12}}$$



                            We could even avoid quadratic equations building the simplest Padé approximant instead of the Taylor series. This gives
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=frac{log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{1}{12} left((5-2 t) log
                            left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+6right) r} {1+ frac{5-2t}{12} r }implies
                            color{blue}{r_3=frac{12,r_1}{12+(2t-5),r_1}}$$



                            Applied to the worked example, this would give
                            $$r_1=2 log left(frac{606}{605}right)approx 0.00330306$$
                            $$r_2=frac{2}{235} left(sqrt{9+1410 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}-3right)approx 0.00311325$$
                            $$r_3=frac{12 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}{6+235 log
                            left(frac{606}{605}right)}approx 0.00310238$$

                            while the exact solution is $$r=0.00311418$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            I prefer to add a second answer.



                            Being just fascinated by David W. Cantrell's approximation
                            $$color{green}{rsimeq left(left(1+frac{c}{p}right)^{frac{1}{q}}-1right)^q-1}qquad text{where} qquad color{green}{q=log_2left(1+frac 1t right)}$$ totally inspired by it, I tried something in the same spirit
                            $$frac{c}r left(1-frac1{(r+1)^t}right)=pimplies 1+frac{c}{p}=1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}$$ Taking logarithms of both sides
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{r}{1-(r+1)^{-t}}right)$$ Now, expanding the rhs as a Taylor series at $r=0$
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{r}{2}+frac{2t-5}{24} r^2 +Oleft(r^3right)$$
                            Neglecting the second order term, we the obtain the first approximation
                            $$color{blue}{r_1 =2 log left(frac{t ,(c+p)}{p, (t+1)}right)}$$
                            Using the complete expansion to $Oleft(r^3right)$, we then have the second approximation
                            $$color{blue}{r_2=frac{sqrt{1+4, alpha, r_1}-1}{2 alpha }}qquad text{where}qquad color{blue}{alpha=frac {2t-5}{12}}$$



                            We could even avoid quadratic equations building the simplest Padé approximant instead of the Taylor series. This gives
                            $$log left(1+frac{c}{p}right)=frac{log left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+frac{1}{12} left((5-2 t) log
                            left(1+frac{1}{t}right)+6right) r} {1+ frac{5-2t}{12} r }implies
                            color{blue}{r_3=frac{12,r_1}{12+(2t-5),r_1}}$$



                            Applied to the worked example, this would give
                            $$r_1=2 log left(frac{606}{605}right)approx 0.00330306$$
                            $$r_2=frac{2}{235} left(sqrt{9+1410 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}-3right)approx 0.00311325$$
                            $$r_3=frac{12 log left(frac{606}{605}right)}{6+235 log
                            left(frac{606}{605}right)}approx 0.00310238$$

                            while the exact solution is $$r=0.00311418$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 8 at 9:20









                            Claude LeiboviciClaude Leibovici

                            120k1157132




                            120k1157132






























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