Conjecture about polynomials $f_ninmathbb Q[X_1,dots,X_n]$ defining bijections $mathbb N^ntomathbb N$












2














This is inspired by an answer of a question of mine:



Bijective polynomials $finmathbb Q[X_1,dots,X_n]$



There is a polynomial $f_1inmathbb Q[X_1]$ which define a bijection $f_1:mathbb Ntomathbb N$, $f_1(X_1)=X_1$.



There is a polynomial $f_2inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2]$ which define a bijection $f_2:mathbb N^2tomathbb N$,



$displaystyle f_2(X_1,X_2)=frac{(X_1+X_2)(X_1+X_2+1)}{2}+f_1(X_1)$.



And as far as I understand and have tested there is a polynomial $f_3inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2,X_3]$ which define a bijection
$f_3:mathbb N^3tomathbb N$



$displaystyle f_3(X_1,X_2,X_3)=frac{(X_1+X_2+X_3)(X_1+X_2+X_3+1)(X_1+X_2+X_3+2)}{6}+f_2(X_1,X_2)$.



This seems possible to generalize as



$displaystyle f_{n+1}(X_1,dots ,X_{n+1})=f_{n}(X_1,dots ,X_{n})+frac{1}{(n+1)!}prod_{k=1}^{n+1}Big(k-1+sum_{i=1}^{n+1}X_iBig)$.



This is a generalisation of the diagonalization in case of $n=2$ with "triangularization", "tetraederization" or higher. Now the conjecture is




$displaystyle f_n(X_1,dots,X_n)$ define a bijection $mathbb N^ntomathbb N$ for all $n>0$.




enter image description here



Induction seems natural but how to prove that $f_n$ is a bijection implies that $f_{n+1}$ is a bijection?



What I want are proofs, parts of proofs or counter proofs.










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    2














    This is inspired by an answer of a question of mine:



    Bijective polynomials $finmathbb Q[X_1,dots,X_n]$



    There is a polynomial $f_1inmathbb Q[X_1]$ which define a bijection $f_1:mathbb Ntomathbb N$, $f_1(X_1)=X_1$.



    There is a polynomial $f_2inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2]$ which define a bijection $f_2:mathbb N^2tomathbb N$,



    $displaystyle f_2(X_1,X_2)=frac{(X_1+X_2)(X_1+X_2+1)}{2}+f_1(X_1)$.



    And as far as I understand and have tested there is a polynomial $f_3inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2,X_3]$ which define a bijection
    $f_3:mathbb N^3tomathbb N$



    $displaystyle f_3(X_1,X_2,X_3)=frac{(X_1+X_2+X_3)(X_1+X_2+X_3+1)(X_1+X_2+X_3+2)}{6}+f_2(X_1,X_2)$.



    This seems possible to generalize as



    $displaystyle f_{n+1}(X_1,dots ,X_{n+1})=f_{n}(X_1,dots ,X_{n})+frac{1}{(n+1)!}prod_{k=1}^{n+1}Big(k-1+sum_{i=1}^{n+1}X_iBig)$.



    This is a generalisation of the diagonalization in case of $n=2$ with "triangularization", "tetraederization" or higher. Now the conjecture is




    $displaystyle f_n(X_1,dots,X_n)$ define a bijection $mathbb N^ntomathbb N$ for all $n>0$.




    enter image description here



    Induction seems natural but how to prove that $f_n$ is a bijection implies that $f_{n+1}$ is a bijection?



    What I want are proofs, parts of proofs or counter proofs.










    share|cite|improve this question



























      2












      2








      2







      This is inspired by an answer of a question of mine:



      Bijective polynomials $finmathbb Q[X_1,dots,X_n]$



      There is a polynomial $f_1inmathbb Q[X_1]$ which define a bijection $f_1:mathbb Ntomathbb N$, $f_1(X_1)=X_1$.



      There is a polynomial $f_2inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2]$ which define a bijection $f_2:mathbb N^2tomathbb N$,



      $displaystyle f_2(X_1,X_2)=frac{(X_1+X_2)(X_1+X_2+1)}{2}+f_1(X_1)$.



      And as far as I understand and have tested there is a polynomial $f_3inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2,X_3]$ which define a bijection
      $f_3:mathbb N^3tomathbb N$



      $displaystyle f_3(X_1,X_2,X_3)=frac{(X_1+X_2+X_3)(X_1+X_2+X_3+1)(X_1+X_2+X_3+2)}{6}+f_2(X_1,X_2)$.



      This seems possible to generalize as



      $displaystyle f_{n+1}(X_1,dots ,X_{n+1})=f_{n}(X_1,dots ,X_{n})+frac{1}{(n+1)!}prod_{k=1}^{n+1}Big(k-1+sum_{i=1}^{n+1}X_iBig)$.



      This is a generalisation of the diagonalization in case of $n=2$ with "triangularization", "tetraederization" or higher. Now the conjecture is




      $displaystyle f_n(X_1,dots,X_n)$ define a bijection $mathbb N^ntomathbb N$ for all $n>0$.




      enter image description here



      Induction seems natural but how to prove that $f_n$ is a bijection implies that $f_{n+1}$ is a bijection?



      What I want are proofs, parts of proofs or counter proofs.










      share|cite|improve this question















      This is inspired by an answer of a question of mine:



      Bijective polynomials $finmathbb Q[X_1,dots,X_n]$



      There is a polynomial $f_1inmathbb Q[X_1]$ which define a bijection $f_1:mathbb Ntomathbb N$, $f_1(X_1)=X_1$.



      There is a polynomial $f_2inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2]$ which define a bijection $f_2:mathbb N^2tomathbb N$,



      $displaystyle f_2(X_1,X_2)=frac{(X_1+X_2)(X_1+X_2+1)}{2}+f_1(X_1)$.



      And as far as I understand and have tested there is a polynomial $f_3inmathbb Q[X_1,X_2,X_3]$ which define a bijection
      $f_3:mathbb N^3tomathbb N$



      $displaystyle f_3(X_1,X_2,X_3)=frac{(X_1+X_2+X_3)(X_1+X_2+X_3+1)(X_1+X_2+X_3+2)}{6}+f_2(X_1,X_2)$.



      This seems possible to generalize as



      $displaystyle f_{n+1}(X_1,dots ,X_{n+1})=f_{n}(X_1,dots ,X_{n})+frac{1}{(n+1)!}prod_{k=1}^{n+1}Big(k-1+sum_{i=1}^{n+1}X_iBig)$.



      This is a generalisation of the diagonalization in case of $n=2$ with "triangularization", "tetraederization" or higher. Now the conjecture is




      $displaystyle f_n(X_1,dots,X_n)$ define a bijection $mathbb N^ntomathbb N$ for all $n>0$.




      enter image description here



      Induction seems natural but how to prove that $f_n$ is a bijection implies that $f_{n+1}$ is a bijection?



      What I want are proofs, parts of proofs or counter proofs.







      algebra-precalculus elementary-number-theory polynomials conjectures






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      Lehs

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          The diagonalization argument can indeed be generalized. Roughly, one can see all elements of $mathbb{N}$ appear in order by going through all hyperplanes $X_1+ldots+X_n = s$.



          Now for the proof. Let $s=X_1+...+X_n$. Then your function $f_n$ can be written as
          $$ f_n(X_1, ..., X_n) = binom{s+n-1}{n} + f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1}), $$
          with the conventions that $f_n(0,ldots, 0) = 0$ and $f_0 = 0$.



          Claim: Fix $sin mathbb{N}$. Then $f_n$ induces a bijection
          $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_n} Big[ binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n}{n} -1Big], $$
          where $[x,y]$ is the set of integers from $x$ to $y$, and if $s=0$, then the set on the right is $[0,0]$ by convention.



          Proof of the claim. It is obviously true for $n=1$. Assume it is true for $n-1$. Let us show it is true for $n$.

          For a fixed $s=X_1+...+X_n$, the value $t=X_1 + ldots + X_{n-1}$ can be anything from $0$ to $s$, depending on the value of $X_n$. Thus, by the hypothesis on $f_{n-1}$, it induces a bijection
          $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} Big[ 0, binom{s+n-1}{n-1} -1Big] $$
          defined by $(X_1, ldots, X_n) mapsto f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1})$.
          Thus $f_n$ induces a bijection from the set on the left to the interval $Big[binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1}-1Big]$. Since $binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1} = binom{s+n}{n}$, the claim is proved.



          The fact that $f_n$ is a bijection from $mathbb{N}^n$ to $mathbb{N}$ then follows immediately from the claim.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            The diagonalization argument can indeed be generalized. Roughly, one can see all elements of $mathbb{N}$ appear in order by going through all hyperplanes $X_1+ldots+X_n = s$.



            Now for the proof. Let $s=X_1+...+X_n$. Then your function $f_n$ can be written as
            $$ f_n(X_1, ..., X_n) = binom{s+n-1}{n} + f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1}), $$
            with the conventions that $f_n(0,ldots, 0) = 0$ and $f_0 = 0$.



            Claim: Fix $sin mathbb{N}$. Then $f_n$ induces a bijection
            $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_n} Big[ binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n}{n} -1Big], $$
            where $[x,y]$ is the set of integers from $x$ to $y$, and if $s=0$, then the set on the right is $[0,0]$ by convention.



            Proof of the claim. It is obviously true for $n=1$. Assume it is true for $n-1$. Let us show it is true for $n$.

            For a fixed $s=X_1+...+X_n$, the value $t=X_1 + ldots + X_{n-1}$ can be anything from $0$ to $s$, depending on the value of $X_n$. Thus, by the hypothesis on $f_{n-1}$, it induces a bijection
            $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} Big[ 0, binom{s+n-1}{n-1} -1Big] $$
            defined by $(X_1, ldots, X_n) mapsto f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1})$.
            Thus $f_n$ induces a bijection from the set on the left to the interval $Big[binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1}-1Big]$. Since $binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1} = binom{s+n}{n}$, the claim is proved.



            The fact that $f_n$ is a bijection from $mathbb{N}^n$ to $mathbb{N}$ then follows immediately from the claim.






            share|cite|improve this answer


























              1














              The diagonalization argument can indeed be generalized. Roughly, one can see all elements of $mathbb{N}$ appear in order by going through all hyperplanes $X_1+ldots+X_n = s$.



              Now for the proof. Let $s=X_1+...+X_n$. Then your function $f_n$ can be written as
              $$ f_n(X_1, ..., X_n) = binom{s+n-1}{n} + f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1}), $$
              with the conventions that $f_n(0,ldots, 0) = 0$ and $f_0 = 0$.



              Claim: Fix $sin mathbb{N}$. Then $f_n$ induces a bijection
              $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_n} Big[ binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n}{n} -1Big], $$
              where $[x,y]$ is the set of integers from $x$ to $y$, and if $s=0$, then the set on the right is $[0,0]$ by convention.



              Proof of the claim. It is obviously true for $n=1$. Assume it is true for $n-1$. Let us show it is true for $n$.

              For a fixed $s=X_1+...+X_n$, the value $t=X_1 + ldots + X_{n-1}$ can be anything from $0$ to $s$, depending on the value of $X_n$. Thus, by the hypothesis on $f_{n-1}$, it induces a bijection
              $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} Big[ 0, binom{s+n-1}{n-1} -1Big] $$
              defined by $(X_1, ldots, X_n) mapsto f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1})$.
              Thus $f_n$ induces a bijection from the set on the left to the interval $Big[binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1}-1Big]$. Since $binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1} = binom{s+n}{n}$, the claim is proved.



              The fact that $f_n$ is a bijection from $mathbb{N}^n$ to $mathbb{N}$ then follows immediately from the claim.






              share|cite|improve this answer
























                1












                1








                1






                The diagonalization argument can indeed be generalized. Roughly, one can see all elements of $mathbb{N}$ appear in order by going through all hyperplanes $X_1+ldots+X_n = s$.



                Now for the proof. Let $s=X_1+...+X_n$. Then your function $f_n$ can be written as
                $$ f_n(X_1, ..., X_n) = binom{s+n-1}{n} + f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1}), $$
                with the conventions that $f_n(0,ldots, 0) = 0$ and $f_0 = 0$.



                Claim: Fix $sin mathbb{N}$. Then $f_n$ induces a bijection
                $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_n} Big[ binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n}{n} -1Big], $$
                where $[x,y]$ is the set of integers from $x$ to $y$, and if $s=0$, then the set on the right is $[0,0]$ by convention.



                Proof of the claim. It is obviously true for $n=1$. Assume it is true for $n-1$. Let us show it is true for $n$.

                For a fixed $s=X_1+...+X_n$, the value $t=X_1 + ldots + X_{n-1}$ can be anything from $0$ to $s$, depending on the value of $X_n$. Thus, by the hypothesis on $f_{n-1}$, it induces a bijection
                $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} Big[ 0, binom{s+n-1}{n-1} -1Big] $$
                defined by $(X_1, ldots, X_n) mapsto f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1})$.
                Thus $f_n$ induces a bijection from the set on the left to the interval $Big[binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1}-1Big]$. Since $binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1} = binom{s+n}{n}$, the claim is proved.



                The fact that $f_n$ is a bijection from $mathbb{N}^n$ to $mathbb{N}$ then follows immediately from the claim.






                share|cite|improve this answer












                The diagonalization argument can indeed be generalized. Roughly, one can see all elements of $mathbb{N}$ appear in order by going through all hyperplanes $X_1+ldots+X_n = s$.



                Now for the proof. Let $s=X_1+...+X_n$. Then your function $f_n$ can be written as
                $$ f_n(X_1, ..., X_n) = binom{s+n-1}{n} + f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1}), $$
                with the conventions that $f_n(0,ldots, 0) = 0$ and $f_0 = 0$.



                Claim: Fix $sin mathbb{N}$. Then $f_n$ induces a bijection
                $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_n} Big[ binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n}{n} -1Big], $$
                where $[x,y]$ is the set of integers from $x$ to $y$, and if $s=0$, then the set on the right is $[0,0]$ by convention.



                Proof of the claim. It is obviously true for $n=1$. Assume it is true for $n-1$. Let us show it is true for $n$.

                For a fixed $s=X_1+...+X_n$, the value $t=X_1 + ldots + X_{n-1}$ can be anything from $0$ to $s$, depending on the value of $X_n$. Thus, by the hypothesis on $f_{n-1}$, it induces a bijection
                $$ Big{ (X_1, ldots, X_n)in mathbb{N}^n | s=X_1+...+X_n Big} xrightarrow{f_{n-1}} Big[ 0, binom{s+n-1}{n-1} -1Big] $$
                defined by $(X_1, ldots, X_n) mapsto f_{n-1}(X_1, ldots, X_{n-1})$.
                Thus $f_n$ induces a bijection from the set on the left to the interval $Big[binom{s+n-1}{n}, binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1}-1Big]$. Since $binom{s+n-1}{n} + binom{s+n-1}{n-1} = binom{s+n}{n}$, the claim is proved.



                The fact that $f_n$ is a bijection from $mathbb{N}^n$ to $mathbb{N}$ then follows immediately from the claim.







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                Pierre-Guy Plamondon

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