Field of finite elements GF(p) [on hold]












-1














As p tends to infinity would it be the case that GF(p) tends to the space of real numbers?






finite-fields extension-field







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put on hold as unclear what you're asking by Lord Shark the Unknown, Don Thousand, Dietrich Burde, Henrik, amWhy 2 days ago


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















  • The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
    – Don Thousand
    2 days ago










  • There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
    – Adam Higgins
    2 days ago






  • 1




    How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    2 days ago










  • I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
    – MathematicianP
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
    – Dietrich Burde
    2 days ago
















-1














As p tends to infinity would it be the case that GF(p) tends to the space of real numbers?






finite-fields extension-field







share|cite|improve this question













put on hold as unclear what you're asking by Lord Shark the Unknown, Don Thousand, Dietrich Burde, Henrik, amWhy 2 days ago


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.















  • The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
    – Don Thousand
    2 days ago










  • There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
    – Adam Higgins
    2 days ago






  • 1




    How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    2 days ago










  • I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
    – MathematicianP
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
    – Dietrich Burde
    2 days ago














-1












-1








-1







As p tends to infinity would it be the case that GF(p) tends to the space of real numbers?






finite-fields extension-field







share|cite|improve this question













As p tends to infinity would it be the case that GF(p) tends to the space of real numbers?






finite-fields extension-field




finite-fields extension-field






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked 2 days ago









MathematicianP

2716




2716




put on hold as unclear what you're asking by Lord Shark the Unknown, Don Thousand, Dietrich Burde, Henrik, amWhy 2 days ago


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.






put on hold as unclear what you're asking by Lord Shark the Unknown, Don Thousand, Dietrich Burde, Henrik, amWhy 2 days ago


Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.














  • The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
    – Don Thousand
    2 days ago










  • There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
    – Adam Higgins
    2 days ago






  • 1




    How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    2 days ago










  • I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
    – MathematicianP
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
    – Dietrich Burde
    2 days ago


















  • The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
    – Don Thousand
    2 days ago










  • There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
    – Adam Higgins
    2 days ago






  • 1




    How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
    – Tobias Kildetoft
    2 days ago










  • I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
    – MathematicianP
    2 days ago






  • 1




    Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
    – Dietrich Burde
    2 days ago
















The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
– Don Thousand
2 days ago




The answer to your question is no, but you should take the time to read this guide on how to ask good questions.
– Don Thousand
2 days ago












There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
– Adam Higgins
2 days ago




There are many many reasons why this is not true, but perhaps the simplest too see is that their underlying sets are not the same, since one is countable and one is not.
– Adam Higgins
2 days ago




1




1




How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
– Tobias Kildetoft
2 days ago




How would you even want to make sense of the limit?
– Tobias Kildetoft
2 days ago












I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
– MathematicianP
2 days ago




I'm just trying to intuitively understand what happens for large p.
– MathematicianP
2 days ago




1




1




Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
– Dietrich Burde
2 days ago




Intuitively nothing happens. But it might be interesting for you to google for the field of $p$-adic numbers, $Bbb{Q}_p$. There people sometimes speak of $Bbb{R}$ as the $p$-adic field for the "infinite" prime.
– Dietrich Burde
2 days ago










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