Prove that the integral of a differential form is zero
Let $mathbb{X}$ and $mathbb{Y}$ be vector fields on $mathbb{R}^n$ such that $[mathbb{X},mathbb{Y}]=0$, and let $Phi_t$ and $Psi_s$ denote their respective flows. Let $c:[0,1]times [0,1]to mathbb{R}^n$ denote the singular $2$-cube given by
$$c(s,t)=Psi_s(Phi_t(0)),$$
where $0$ denotes the origin of $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $omega=omega_idx^i$ be a $1$-form on $mathbb{R}^n$ and suppose that $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$. Show that
$$int_c domega =0.$$
Firstly, as the Jacobi bracket vanishes, the flows of the vector fields commutes. Then,
$$frac{partial c}{partial t}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial t}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=frac{partial}{partial t}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(c(s,t))$$
$$frac{partial c}{partial s}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial s}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(c(s,t))$$
If we denote as $c_{(j,alpha)}$ the $(j,alpha)$-th face of $c$ and $c_{(j,alpha)}^*$ its pullback, then
$$c_{(1,0)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(0,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(0,t))dt$$
$$c_{(1,1)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(1,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(1,t))dt$$
$$c_{(2,0)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,0))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,0))ds$$
$$c_{(2,1)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,1))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,1))ds$$
Using the Stokes theorem,
$$int_c domega=int_{partial c}omega = sum_{j=1}^2sum_{alpha=0}^1 (-1)^{j+alpha}int_0^1 c_{(j,alpha)}^*omega$$
However, I don't know how to conclude the question. I think that the hypothesis of $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$, but I'm not sure where to use it. Any help would be appreciate.
differential-forms vector-fields stokes-theorem
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Let $mathbb{X}$ and $mathbb{Y}$ be vector fields on $mathbb{R}^n$ such that $[mathbb{X},mathbb{Y}]=0$, and let $Phi_t$ and $Psi_s$ denote their respective flows. Let $c:[0,1]times [0,1]to mathbb{R}^n$ denote the singular $2$-cube given by
$$c(s,t)=Psi_s(Phi_t(0)),$$
where $0$ denotes the origin of $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $omega=omega_idx^i$ be a $1$-form on $mathbb{R}^n$ and suppose that $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$. Show that
$$int_c domega =0.$$
Firstly, as the Jacobi bracket vanishes, the flows of the vector fields commutes. Then,
$$frac{partial c}{partial t}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial t}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=frac{partial}{partial t}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(c(s,t))$$
$$frac{partial c}{partial s}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial s}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(c(s,t))$$
If we denote as $c_{(j,alpha)}$ the $(j,alpha)$-th face of $c$ and $c_{(j,alpha)}^*$ its pullback, then
$$c_{(1,0)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(0,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(0,t))dt$$
$$c_{(1,1)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(1,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(1,t))dt$$
$$c_{(2,0)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,0))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,0))ds$$
$$c_{(2,1)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,1))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,1))ds$$
Using the Stokes theorem,
$$int_c domega=int_{partial c}omega = sum_{j=1}^2sum_{alpha=0}^1 (-1)^{j+alpha}int_0^1 c_{(j,alpha)}^*omega$$
However, I don't know how to conclude the question. I think that the hypothesis of $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$, but I'm not sure where to use it. Any help would be appreciate.
differential-forms vector-fields stokes-theorem
add a comment |
Let $mathbb{X}$ and $mathbb{Y}$ be vector fields on $mathbb{R}^n$ such that $[mathbb{X},mathbb{Y}]=0$, and let $Phi_t$ and $Psi_s$ denote their respective flows. Let $c:[0,1]times [0,1]to mathbb{R}^n$ denote the singular $2$-cube given by
$$c(s,t)=Psi_s(Phi_t(0)),$$
where $0$ denotes the origin of $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $omega=omega_idx^i$ be a $1$-form on $mathbb{R}^n$ and suppose that $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$. Show that
$$int_c domega =0.$$
Firstly, as the Jacobi bracket vanishes, the flows of the vector fields commutes. Then,
$$frac{partial c}{partial t}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial t}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=frac{partial}{partial t}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(c(s,t))$$
$$frac{partial c}{partial s}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial s}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(c(s,t))$$
If we denote as $c_{(j,alpha)}$ the $(j,alpha)$-th face of $c$ and $c_{(j,alpha)}^*$ its pullback, then
$$c_{(1,0)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(0,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(0,t))dt$$
$$c_{(1,1)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(1,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(1,t))dt$$
$$c_{(2,0)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,0))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,0))ds$$
$$c_{(2,1)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,1))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,1))ds$$
Using the Stokes theorem,
$$int_c domega=int_{partial c}omega = sum_{j=1}^2sum_{alpha=0}^1 (-1)^{j+alpha}int_0^1 c_{(j,alpha)}^*omega$$
However, I don't know how to conclude the question. I think that the hypothesis of $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$, but I'm not sure where to use it. Any help would be appreciate.
differential-forms vector-fields stokes-theorem
Let $mathbb{X}$ and $mathbb{Y}$ be vector fields on $mathbb{R}^n$ such that $[mathbb{X},mathbb{Y}]=0$, and let $Phi_t$ and $Psi_s$ denote their respective flows. Let $c:[0,1]times [0,1]to mathbb{R}^n$ denote the singular $2$-cube given by
$$c(s,t)=Psi_s(Phi_t(0)),$$
where $0$ denotes the origin of $mathbb{R}^n$. Let $omega=omega_idx^i$ be a $1$-form on $mathbb{R}^n$ and suppose that $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$. Show that
$$int_c domega =0.$$
Firstly, as the Jacobi bracket vanishes, the flows of the vector fields commutes. Then,
$$frac{partial c}{partial t}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial t}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=frac{partial}{partial t}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(Phi_t(Psi_s(0)))=mathbb{X}(c(s,t))$$
$$frac{partial c}{partial s}(s,t)=frac{partial}{partial s}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(Psi_s(Phi_t(0)))=mathbb{Y}(c(s,t))$$
If we denote as $c_{(j,alpha)}$ the $(j,alpha)$-th face of $c$ and $c_{(j,alpha)}^*$ its pullback, then
$$c_{(1,0)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(0,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(0,t))dt$$
$$c_{(1,1)}^*omega(t)=omega_i(c(1,t))mathbb{X}^i(c(1,t))dt$$
$$c_{(2,0)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,0))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,0))ds$$
$$c_{(2,1)}^*omega(s)=omega_i(c(s,1))mathbb{Y}^i(c(s,1))ds$$
Using the Stokes theorem,
$$int_c domega=int_{partial c}omega = sum_{j=1}^2sum_{alpha=0}^1 (-1)^{j+alpha}int_0^1 c_{(j,alpha)}^*omega$$
However, I don't know how to conclude the question. I think that the hypothesis of $i_{mathbb{X}}omega=i_{mathbb{Y}}omega=0$, but I'm not sure where to use it. Any help would be appreciate.
differential-forms vector-fields stokes-theorem
differential-forms vector-fields stokes-theorem
asked Jan 4 at 22:30
user326159user326159
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1,1461722
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By definition, $iota_{X} omega = omega(X) = omega_i X^i$ and $iota_{Y} omega = omega(Y) = omega_i Y^i$
So if $iota_{X}omega = iota_Yomega = 0$, then all four of your $c_{(j, alpha)}^star omega $'s are identically zero.
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By definition, $iota_{X} omega = omega(X) = omega_i X^i$ and $iota_{Y} omega = omega(Y) = omega_i Y^i$
So if $iota_{X}omega = iota_Yomega = 0$, then all four of your $c_{(j, alpha)}^star omega $'s are identically zero.
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By definition, $iota_{X} omega = omega(X) = omega_i X^i$ and $iota_{Y} omega = omega(Y) = omega_i Y^i$
So if $iota_{X}omega = iota_Yomega = 0$, then all four of your $c_{(j, alpha)}^star omega $'s are identically zero.
add a comment |
By definition, $iota_{X} omega = omega(X) = omega_i X^i$ and $iota_{Y} omega = omega(Y) = omega_i Y^i$
So if $iota_{X}omega = iota_Yomega = 0$, then all four of your $c_{(j, alpha)}^star omega $'s are identically zero.
By definition, $iota_{X} omega = omega(X) = omega_i X^i$ and $iota_{Y} omega = omega(Y) = omega_i Y^i$
So if $iota_{X}omega = iota_Yomega = 0$, then all four of your $c_{(j, alpha)}^star omega $'s are identically zero.
edited Jan 4 at 22:53
answered Jan 4 at 22:43
Kenny WongKenny Wong
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