Sturm–Liouville equation with finite number of eigenvalues?
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Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.
It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.
Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.
However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.
What is wrong here?
functional-analysis differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors spectral-theory sturm-liouville
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show 3 more comments
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Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.
It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.
Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.
However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.
What is wrong here?
functional-analysis differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors spectral-theory sturm-liouville
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Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
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– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
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@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
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If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
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– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
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@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
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– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
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$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.
It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.
Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.
However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.
What is wrong here?
functional-analysis differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors spectral-theory sturm-liouville
$endgroup$
Consider the following Sturm–Liouville (SL) eigenvalue problem $$(x^2y')'-[(x/2+a)^2+a]y=-lambda^2y(x),$$ in which $xin(-infty,0)$ and parameter $a>0$. Therefore, the SL coefficient functions $p(x)=x^2$, $w(x)=1$, and $q(x)=-[(x/2+a)^2+a]$. It has a regular singularity $x=0$. This is from some physical modelling and we basically hope for something like homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.
It is solved by making the substitution $y(x)=e^{x/2}x^{-frac{1}{2}+sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}}u(x)$, leading directly to a standard confluent hypergeometric equation $$xu''(x)+(gamma-x)u'(x)-alpha u(x)=0,$$ in which $alpha=sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}-a+frac{1}{2}$ and $gamma=1+2sqrt{(a+frac{1}{2})^2-lambda^2}$. It has two (1st kind & 2nd kind) independent solutions.
Let's follow some ubiquitous argument when solving eigensystem related to confluent hypergeometric equation. Requiring nondivergence at $x=0$, the 2nd kind is dropped. Requiring nondivergence at $infty$, the 1st kind is reduced to a polynomial when $-alpha$ is a non-negative integer and eigenvalue $lambda^2$ is attained.
However, seen from this condition for $alpha$, obviously we only have a bounded and finite sequence of eigenvalues, which is seemingly contradicting with the infinite eigenspectrum that SL theory claims.
What is wrong here?
functional-analysis differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors spectral-theory sturm-liouville
functional-analysis differential-equations eigenvalues-eigenvectors spectral-theory sturm-liouville
edited Jan 7 at 6:46
xiaohuamao
asked Jan 5 at 7:30
xiaohuamaoxiaohuamao
258110
258110
$begingroup$
Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
$begingroup$
@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
$begingroup$
If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
$begingroup$
@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
$begingroup$
$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17
|
show 3 more comments
$begingroup$
Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
$begingroup$
@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
$begingroup$
If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
$begingroup$
@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
$begingroup$
$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17
$begingroup$
Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
$begingroup$
Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
$begingroup$
@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
$begingroup$
@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
$begingroup$
If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
$begingroup$
If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
$begingroup$
@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
$begingroup$
@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
$begingroup$
$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17
$begingroup$
$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17
|
show 3 more comments
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$begingroup$
Note that the standard Sturm–Liouville eigenvalue problem is linear in the eigenvalue. In your case that would be equivalent to also allowing imaginary $λ$.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 5 at 8:25
$begingroup$
@LutzL But actually assuming imaginary $lambda$ doesn't really give any extra solution to the condition of $alpha$. In any case, I can just use $lambda$ instead and the question remains.
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 5 at 8:35
$begingroup$
If there are only a finite number of eigenfunctions in $L^2$, then there must be continuous spectrum for the operator, provided you have properly defined endpoint conditions that lead to a well-posed selfadjoint problem.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:02
$begingroup$
@DisintegratingByParts Thanks. Yes, I think it is self-adjoint for homogeneous Dirichlet b.c. But a confusing thing is what if we consider this equation on (−∞,+∞) with homogeneous Dirichlet b.c.? The solution shown with $e^{x/2}$ doesn't seem to allow this at +∞. I'm not sure if this is normal. Did I do anything wrong?
$endgroup$
– xiaohuamao
Jan 6 at 7:09
$begingroup$
$x=0$ is a singular point of your equation, which complicates any examination of the equation on $(-infty,infty)$.
$endgroup$
– DisintegratingByParts
Jan 6 at 7:17